A nurse is caring for a client on the second day postpartum.
The client informs the nurse that she is voiding a large volume of urine frequently.
Which factor should the nurse identify as a potential cause for urinary frequency?.

Urinary tract infection.

Trauma to pelvic muscles.

Urinary overflow.

Postpartum diuresis.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

The correct answer is choice D.

Choice A rationale:

While a urinary tract infection can cause frequent urination, it’s usually accompanied by other symptoms such as pain or burning during urination.

Choice B rationale:

Trauma to pelvic muscles can cause urinary incontinence, not necessarily increased frequency.

Choice C rationale:

Urinary overflow is a condition where the bladder is always full and can lead to frequent leakage of urine.

Choice D rationale:

Postpartum diuresis is the body’s way of getting rid of excess fluid accumulated during pregnancy, leading to increased urine production and frequency.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is choice D.

Choice A rationale:

While oxytocin sensitivity is important for labor, there is no evidence to suggest that Braxton Hicks contractions increase oxytocin sensitivity.

Choice B rationale:

Prostaglandins play a crucial role in labor by causing the cervix to soften and dilate and the uterus to contract. However, there is no evidence to suggest that Braxton Hicks contractions increase the release of prostaglandins.

Choice C rationale:

While maternal comfort is important during labor, there is no evidence to suggest that Braxton Hicks contractions make maternal breathing easier.

Choice D rationale:

Braxton Hicks contractions help in softening and ripening the cervix, which is an important part of preparing for labor.

A. "This could result in profound bleeding.” B. "There is an increased risk of introducing infection.” C. "This could initiate preterm labor.” D. "There is an increased risk of rupture of the amniotic membranes.”.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is choice A.

Choice A rationale:

An internal examination could disturb the placenta and cause profound bleeding, which is a life-threatening condition for both the mother and the fetus.

Choice B rationale:

While there is always a risk of introducing infection during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason to avoid it in a client with placenta previa.

Choice C rationale:

An internal examination could potentially initiate preterm labor, but this is not the primary concern with placenta previa.

Choice D rationale:

While there is a risk of rupture of the amniotic membranes during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason to avoid it in a client with placenta previa.

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A nurse is caring for a client on the second day postpartum.The client informs the nurse that she is voiding a large volume of urine frequently.Which factor should the nurse identify as a potential cause for urinary frequency?.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa.The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination.Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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A nurse is caring for a client on the second day postpartum.
The client informs the nurse that she is voiding a large volume of urine frequently.
Which factor should the nurse identify as a potential cause for urinary frequency?.