A nurse is caring for a client following a possible exposure to anthrax. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Administer an antitoxin.

Quarantine the client.

Monitor the client for a productive cough.

Begin prophylactic treatment with ciprofloxacin.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Administer an antitoxin: There is no specific antitoxin available for anthrax. Treatment primarily involves antibiotics and supportive care.

B. Quarantine the client: Quarantine may not be necessary unless the client is confirmed to have an active infection or poses a risk of spreading the disease to others.

C. Monitor the client for a productive cough: While respiratory symptoms can occur in inhalation anthrax, monitoring for a productive cough alone may not be sufficient for management.

D. Begin prophylactic treatment with ciprofloxacin: Prophylactic antibiotic treatment with ciprofloxacin or doxycycline is recommended following exposure to anthrax to prevent the development of the disease.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Changing clothes after working in the field helps prevent pesticide residue from being transferred to other surfaces and reduces the risk of exposure to pesticides.

B. Applying petroleum jelly to the nostrils is not an effective method for minimizing exposure to pesticides and may not provide significant protection.

C. Wiping fruits and vegetables with a dry cloth may remove some surface dirt but is unlikely to effectively remove pesticide residues, especially if they have been absorbed into the produce.

D. Taking a hot shower after finishing work may help remove pesticide residues from the skin but does not address the potential for exposure from contaminated clothing or other surfaces.

A. Administer furosemide. B. Withhold digoxin. C. Withhold spironolactone. D. Administer ferrous sulfate.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Administering furosemide may also be appropriate for managing heart failure symptoms, but the priority action based on the client's condition is to withhold digoxin.

B. The client's vital signs indicate bradycardia (pulse 52/min), which is a common adverse effect of digoxin, especially in the setting of heart failure. Withholding digoxin is necessary to prevent further exacerbation of bradycardia and potential toxicity.

C. Withholding spironolactone may be considered if there are concerns about electrolyte imbalances, but it is not the priority action in this scenario.

D. Administering ferrous sulfate is not indicated based on the client's chart findings; there is no indication of anemia or iron deficiency.

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A nurse is caring for a client following a possible exposure to anthrax. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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