A nurse is caring for a 9-month-old infant in a pediatric clinic. The child's guardian tells the nurse that the child has missed the scheduled 6-month immunizations. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"We can give your child all of the missed immunizations in one injection."
"Your child will have to start their immunization series over from the beginning."
"We will administer the immunizations your child missed today."
"We will give your child all of the needed immunizations at 12 months."
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Administering all the missed immunizations in one injection is not recommended and can lead to increased discomfort and potential adverse reactions.
Choice B rationale:
Starting the immunization series over is unnecessary and can delay the child's protection against vaccine-preventable diseases.
Choice C rationale:
The most appropriate action is to administer the immunizations the child missed at the earliest opportunity to catch up on the schedule.
Choice D rationale:
Waiting until 12 months of age is not necessary if the child has already missed scheduled immunizations. The catch-up schedule should be followed based on the child's current age.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Filing a transfer request might be considered if the bullying behavior persists despite attempts to address it, but it's important for the newly licensed nurse to initially address the behavior directly.
Choice B rationale:
Discussing the matter with the facility's quality improvement team might be necessary if the situation escalates, but addressing the behavior directly with the coworker is the initial step.
Choice C rationale:
Introducing a no-tolerance policy for incivility is a good idea, but addressing the specific behavior with the coworker is important in the moment.
Choice D rationale:
Calmly addressing the coworker's behavior as soon as it occurs is a proactive way to assert boundaries and address the bullying behavior directly.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Administering corticosteroids is relevant for clients at risk of preterm labor, not specifically for placenta previa.
Choice B rationale:
Placenta previa can lead to bleeding and potential fetal distress. Continuous monitoring of fetal heart rate (FHR) and uterine contractions is essential to promptly identify any signs of distress.
Choice C rationale:
Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication used to suppress uterine contractions, and it's not relevant for managing uterine atony associated with placenta previa.
Choice D rationale:
Performing a vaginal exam can further increase the risk of bleeding in cases of placenta previa and is generally contraindicated due to the risk of disturbing the placental site.
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