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A nurse is caring for a 44-year-old female client in the emergency department.

Exhibits
Complete the following sentence by using the list of options.
The client is experiencing caused by

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"B"}

Peritonitis
Peritonitis is an infection of the peritoneum (the lining of the abdominal cavity), often related to peritoneal dialysis. It can present with abdominal pain, fever, rigidity, and rebound tenderness,
consistent with the client’s symptoms. Cloudy effluent is also a common sign of peritoneal dialysis- related peritonitis.

Peritoneal dialysis
Peritoneal dialysis is a type of dialysis that uses the peritoneum (abdominal lining) to filter blood. If there is an issue with the dialysis process, it could lead to complications such as peritonitis. This is consistent with the client's symptoms, such as abdominal pain, fever, nausea, vomiting, and cloudy effluent.
 


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Phacoemulsification is a procedure used to remove cataracts from the eye. It involves using ultrasound waves to break up the cloudy lens (cataract) into small fragments, which are then suctioned out. While this procedure is relevant for cataract treatment, it does not address the acute management of angle-closure glaucoma.
B. Extracapsular cataract extraction is a surgical procedure to remove a cataract from the eye by making an incision and extracting the lens in one piece or in large segments. Like phacoemulsification, this procedure is focused on cataract removal and does not directly treat the underlying issue of acute angle-closure glaucoma.
C. A cochlear implant is a device used to provide a sense of sound to individuals with severe hearing loss or deafness. This procedure is unrelated to the treatment of eye conditions or intraocular pressure and therefore is not appropriate for managing primary angle-closure glaucoma.
D. Surgical iridectomy is a procedure specifically aimed at treating angle-closure glaucoma. It involves creating a small hole (iridectomy) in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humor to flow from the posterior chamber of the eye to the anterior chamber, bypassing the obstructed drainage angle.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used to manage hypertension. It is not associated with an increased risk of osteoarthritis. While hypertension itself is a health concern, amlodipine does not directly contribute to the development of OA.
B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can lead to various side effects, including bone loss and osteoporosis with long-term use. Although osteoporosis and OA are different conditions, long-term use of corticosteroids can potentially increase the risk of joint issues and contribute to the development or exacerbation of OA due to the impact on joint cartilage and bone density.
C. Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots in atrial fibrillation. It is not directly associated with an increased risk of osteoarthritis. The primary concerns with warfarin involve bleeding risks rather than joint health.
D. Being Caucasian and having multiple children do not directly contribute to an increased risk of osteoarthritis.

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