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A nurse is caring for a 44-year-old client who was admitted with an elevated temperature and abdominal pain.
Exhibits

Select the top 4 client findings that requires immediate follow up.

Potassium 7.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L)

WBC count 17,000/mm3 (Normal Finding: 5,000 to 10,000/mm3)

Crackles throughout lungs

Creatinine 3.0 mg/dL (0.5 to 1.3 mg/dL)

Abdomen rigid with decreased bowel sounds

Glucose 250 mg/dL

No dialysis for 24 hr

Hemoglobin 10 g/dL (12 to 18 g/dL) Nausea

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,B,C,H

A. Potassium 7.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L): Elevated potassium levels (hyperkalemia) can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias and are especially concerning in clients with chronic kidney disease who are at risk of renal complications. Immediate follow-up is crucial to prevent severe cardiac effects.

B. WBC count 17,000/mm³ (Normal Finding: 5,000 to 10,000/mm³): An elevated WBC count indicates an infection or inflammation, which is concerning given the client’s symptoms and temperature. This finding requires immediate follow-up to address potential infection.

C. Crackles throughout lungs: Crackles may indicate fluid overload or pulmonary edema, particularly in clients with chronic kidney disease. This could be a sign of worsening renal function or heart failure, which requires prompt attention.

H. No dialysis for 24 hr: Missing dialysis sessions in a client with stage IV chronic kidney disease can lead to dangerous fluid and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate action to prevent complications related to renal failure.

Explanation of Incorrect Options:

E. Creatinine 3.0 mg/dL (0.5 to 1.3 mg/dL): While elevated creatinine levels are concerning, the client’s history of chronic kidney disease means this level is expected to be higher. However, it is not as immediately critical as the other findings.

F. Abdomen rigid with decreased bowel sounds: This may suggest abdominal complications but is not as immediately critical as issues related to hyperkalemia or infection.

G. Glucose 250 mg/dL: Elevated glucose levels are concerning but less immediately critical compared to severe electrolyte imbalances and potential infections.

H. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL (12 to 18 g/dL): Anemia is a concern but is not as urgent as the immediate risks posed by elevated potassium, signs of infection, or missed dialysis.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Reducing protein intake is a key intervention to decrease ammonia levels in clients with liver cirrhosis and encephalopathy. Protein metabolism in the liver produces ammonia, and limiting protein can help manage elevated ammonia levels, thereby reducing symptoms of encephalopathy.

B. Restricting fluid intake is not directly related to decreasing ammonia levels. While fluid restriction may be necessary in cases of ascites or edema, it does not address the root cause of elevated ammonia in liver disease.

C. Administering vitamin K is important for managing clotting issues in liver disease but does not directly impact ammonia levels. Vitamin K helps with clotting factor synthesis, which is not directly related to ammonia metabolism.

D. Administering diuretics can help manage fluid retention but does not reduce ammonia levels. The primary goal for managing ammonia in cirrhosis involves dietary modifications and medications like lactulose, rather than diuretics.

A. Place the client on his left side in Trendelenburg position. B. Replace the infusion system. C. Remove the catheter. D. Prepare for chest tube insertion. E. Prepare for chest tube insertion.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Placing the client on their left side in Trendelenburg position (head down, feet up) helps trap any air in the right atrium and prevents it from entering the pulmonary circulation, reducing the risk of an air embolism affecting the lungs.

B. Replacing the infusion system does not address the immediate need to manage an air embolism. The primary intervention is positioning and monitoring.

C. Removing the catheter is not the initial priority. The focus should be on managing the air embolism and ensuring the client is in the correct position.

D. Preparing for chest tube insertion is not appropriate unless there is evidence of a pneumothorax or hemothorax. The immediate concern is managing the air embolism.

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A nurse is caring for a 44-year-old client who was admitted with an elevated temperature and abdominal pain. Exhibits Select the top 4 client findings that requires immediate follow up.

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A nurse is caring for a 44-year-old client who was admitted with an elevated temperature and abdominal pain.
Exhibits

Select the top 4 client findings that requires immediate follow up.