A nurse is caring for a 20-year-old client who has a fever and reports severe headache.
A nurse is preparing the client for a lumbar puncture. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.
Provide education about the procedure.
Place the client in a lateral position with the knees drawn to the abdomen.
Ensure informed consent is obtained.
Place client NPO for 4 to 6 hr.
Obtain coagulation studies.
Assess for allergies to contrast dyes.
Administer a soapsuds enema.
Administer IV sedation as prescribed.
Correct Answer : A,B,C,D,E
A. Educating the client about the lumbar puncture procedure is crucial for informed consent and to alleviate anxiety. The nurse should explain the purpose of the procedure, what the client will experience during the procedure (such as positioning, sensation of pressure), potential risks (like headache post- procedure), and benefits (diagnostic information for the healthcare provider).
B. Positioning the client correctly is important for the success and safety of the lumbar puncture. The lateral recumbent (side lying) position with the knees drawn up towards the abdomen helps to flex the spine and widen the spaces between the vertebrae in the lumbar region. This positioning makes it easier for the healthcare provider to access the spinal canal and perform the procedure accurately.
C. Informed consent is a legal and ethical requirement before performing any invasive procedure, including a lumbar puncture. The nurse must ensure that the client (or their legally authorized representative) understands the purpose of the procedure, its risks and benefits, alternative options (if any), and gives voluntary consent without coercion.
D. NPO (nothing by mouth) status helps reduce the risk of aspiration during the procedure, especially if the client needs sedation or if complications arise requiring emergency intubation. It ensures that the client's stomach is empty, minimizing the risk of vomiting and aspiration during the procedure.
E. Coagulation studies (such as PT/INR and PTT) may be ordered to assess the client's bleeding risk before performing a lumbar puncture. This is particularly important if there are concerns about bleeding disorders or if the client is on anticoagulant medications. Normal coagulation parameters are reassuring before proceeding with an invasive procedure.
F. Contrast dye is not typically used in a routine lumbar puncture.
G. Administering a soapsuds enema is not typically necessary before a lumbar puncture unless specifically indicated by the healthcare provider. It may be used in certain cases to reduce the risk of fecal contamination during the procedure, particularly if the client is constipated.
H. IV sedation is not routinely administered during a lumbar puncture in adult clients
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["5.6"]
Explanation
- Convert the weight from pounds to kilograms: 1 kilogram equals 2.2 pounds. The toddler weighs 33 lb, which is approximately 15 kg (33 ÷ 2.2).
- The prescribed dose is 30 mg/kg/day, so for a 15 kg toddler, that's 450 mg/day (15 kg × 30 mg/kg).
This total daily dose should be divided into two doses administered every 12 hours, which equals 225 mg per dose (450 mg ÷ 2).
- Now, using the concentration of the amoxicillin suspension available, which is 200 mg/5 mL, calculate the volume of suspension needed to deliver a dose of 225 mg.
200 mg/5 mL = 225 mg/x mL, solving for x gives us 5.625 mL.
=Therefore, the nurse should administer 5.6 mL of the amoxicillin suspension every 12 hours to the toddler.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. This response addresses the timeframe for heparin to achieve therapeutic levels in the bloodstream, not its action on dissolving clots. Heparin works primarily by inhibiting the formation of new clots and preventing existing clots from enlarging or propagating, rather than directly dissolving existing clots.
B. This statement accurately describes the mechanism of action of heparin. Heparin is an anticoagulant that works by enhancing the activity of antithrombin III, which inhibits the clotting factors thrombin and factor Xa. This action prevents the formation of new clots and stabilizes existing clots, but it does not actively dissolve them.
C. While pharmacists are knowledgeable about medications, including their mechanisms of action, it is within the scope of nursing practice to provide information on how medications work to clients. The nurse should be prepared to explain the basic mechanism of heparin's action to the client in understandable terms.
D. This response is inaccurate regarding heparin's action. Heparin itself does not directly dissolve clots; it prevents further clot formation and allows the body's natural fibrinolytic (clot-dissolving) mechanisms to work on existing clots. Oral medications like warfarin or direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) may be used after initial heparin therapy to continue anticoagulation, but they do not directly dissolve clots either.
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