A nurse is caring for a 20-year-old client who has a fever and reports severe headache.
A nurse is preparing the client for a lumbar puncture. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.
Provide education about the procedure.
Place the client in a lateral position with the knees drawn to the abdomen.
Ensure informed consent is obtained.
Place client NPO for 4 to 6 hr.
Obtain coagulation studies.
Assess for allergies to contrast dyes.
Administer a soapsuds enema.
Administer IV sedation as prescribed.
Correct Answer : A,B,C,D,E
A. Educating the client about the lumbar puncture procedure is crucial for informed consent and to alleviate anxiety. The nurse should explain the purpose of the procedure, what the client will experience during the procedure (such as positioning, sensation of pressure), potential risks (like headache post- procedure), and benefits (diagnostic information for the healthcare provider).
B. Positioning the client correctly is important for the success and safety of the lumbar puncture. The lateral recumbent (side lying) position with the knees drawn up towards the abdomen helps to flex the spine and widen the spaces between the vertebrae in the lumbar region. This positioning makes it easier for the healthcare provider to access the spinal canal and perform the procedure accurately.
C. Informed consent is a legal and ethical requirement before performing any invasive procedure, including a lumbar puncture. The nurse must ensure that the client (or their legally authorized representative) understands the purpose of the procedure, its risks and benefits, alternative options (if any), and gives voluntary consent without coercion.
D. NPO (nothing by mouth) status helps reduce the risk of aspiration during the procedure, especially if the client needs sedation or if complications arise requiring emergency intubation. It ensures that the client's stomach is empty, minimizing the risk of vomiting and aspiration during the procedure.
E. Coagulation studies (such as PT/INR and PTT) may be ordered to assess the client's bleeding risk before performing a lumbar puncture. This is particularly important if there are concerns about bleeding disorders or if the client is on anticoagulant medications. Normal coagulation parameters are reassuring before proceeding with an invasive procedure.
F. Contrast dye is not typically used in a routine lumbar puncture.
G. Administering a soapsuds enema is not typically necessary before a lumbar puncture unless specifically indicated by the healthcare provider. It may be used in certain cases to reduce the risk of fecal contamination during the procedure, particularly if the client is constipated.
H. IV sedation is not routinely administered during a lumbar puncture in adult clients
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The CD4-T-cell count is a critical indicator of immune function in individuals with HIV. CD4 cells are a type of white blood cell that HIV targets and destroys, leading to immune deficiency. A lower CD4 count indicates greater immunosuppression and increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections. Monitoring CD4 counts helps guide decisions regarding antiretroviral therapy (ART) initiation and monitoring response to treatment.
B. White blood cell (WBC) count measures the body's immune response and can fluctuate due to various factors. A WBC count of 5,000/mm3 is within the normal range, but it alone does not provide specific information about the client's HIV status or immune function compared to the CD4 count.
C. Platelets are involved in blood clotting, and a platelet count of 150,000/mm3 is within the normal range. Platelet counts are important for assessing bleeding risk but are not directly related to HIV progression or immune status.
D. A positive Western blot test confirms the presence of HIV antibodies in the blood. It is used for definitive HIV diagnosis after an initial positive screening test (such as ELISA). While important for diagnosis, once HIV is confirmed, ongoing monitoring of CD4 counts and viral load (not directly mentioned in the options) becomes more crucial for managing the disease.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Glipizide belongs to a class of medications called sulfonylureas. Sulfonylureas work by stimulating the beta cells in the pancreas to release insulin. Insulin is a hormone that helps lower blood sugar levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells for energy or storage. Therefore, this statement accurately describes the mechanism of action of glipizide.
B. Glipizide does not absorb carbohydrates. Instead, it acts on pancreatic beta cells to increase insulin secretion in response to glucose in the bloodstream.
C. Glipizide does not affect the liver's breakdown of insulin. Its primary action is on the pancreas to stimulate insulin release.
D. Glipizide does not replace insulin. It stimulates the pancreas to release more insulin. It is used in type 2 diabetes mellitus, where insulin production by the pancreas may be reduced but not absent.
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