A nurse is calculating the BMI of a client who has a weight of 75 kg (165.3 lb) and a height of 1.8 m (5 ft 9 in). Which of the following values should the nurse calculate as the client's BMI?
42
28
32
24
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale:
A. 42: A BMI of 42 falls in the category of class III (severe) obesity. This would only occur if the client's weight were significantly higher than 75 kg for a height of 1.8 m.
B. 28: A BMI of 28 indicates overweight status. At 75 kg and 1.8 m tall, the client does not meet the weight requirement for a BMI this high, as 28 would correspond to a weight closer to 91 kg.
C. 32: A BMI of 32 falls in the obesity range. For someone who is 1.8 m tall, a BMI of 32 would require a weight of about 104 kg, which is much higher than the client’s actual weight of 75 kg.
D. 24: The BMI is calculated as weight (kg) divided by height (m²). Using the formula:
BMI = 75 / (1.8 × 1.8) = 75 / 3.24 ≈ 23.15, which rounds to 24, placing the client in the normal weight range.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Obtain a 12-lead ECG for the client: An ECG is important for diagnosing myocardial ischemia or infarction, but it is not the immediate first step. The priority is to stop activity and reduce myocardial oxygen demand before further diagnostics.
B. Have the client stop walking and sit down: Angina is often triggered by physical exertion. Stopping activity and sitting down reduces oxygen demand on the heart, alleviates symptoms, and prevents further ischemia. This is the most immediate and essential first action.
C. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin to the client: Nitroglycerin helps relieve anginal pain by dilating coronary arteries, but it should be given after the client has stopped activity and rested. Administering it while the client is still active may not be effective or safe.
D. Measure the client's vital signs: While vital signs are important for assessing the client’s current status, the priority is to stop exertion, which is likely contributing to myocardial oxygen imbalance. Assessment follows immediate symptom relief measures.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Misoprostol: Misoprostol is a prostaglandin used to stimulate uterine contractions and control postpartum hemorrhage. It is generally safe for clients with hypertension, as it does not cause significant vasoconstriction or elevate blood pressure.
B. Oxytocin: Oxytocin is commonly used to manage postpartum hemorrhage by inducing uterine contractions. It does not have hypertensive effects and is safe for use in clients with a history of high blood pressure.
C. Terbutaline: Terbutaline is a beta-agonist used for tocolysis, not for treating postpartum hemorrhage. Although it may cause tachycardia and hypotension, it is not a uterotonic and is not relevant in this context.
D. Methylergonovine: Methylergonovine is contraindicated in clients with hypertension because it causes intense vasoconstriction, which can significantly elevate blood pressure and increase the risk of stroke or cardiac events in hypertensive clients.
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