A nurse is assuming care of a client who has an existing deep-vein thrombosis (DVT). What interventions would be anticipated in their plan of care? (Select All that Apply).
Encourage and assist with turning every 2 hours.
Position the legs dependently.
Administer ibuprofen for pain relief.
Monitor platelet levels.
Apply ice to the extremity.
Evaluate fit of compression stockings.
Correct Answer : A,D,F
Choice A rationale
Encouraging and assisting with turning every 2 hours is a standard intervention for any client with restricted mobility, including those on bedrest due to DVT. This measure helps prevent skin breakdown and pressure ulcers by relieving pressure over bony prominences and promoting circulation to compressed tissues.
Choice B rationale
Positioning the legs dependently (hanging down) would increase venous pressure and worsen venous pooling and edema distal to the DVT site due to the effects of gravity, which could potentially increase pain and swelling. The affected leg should be elevated above the level of the heart to promote venous return and reduce edema and pressure.
Choice C rationale
Ibuprofen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), inhibits platelet aggregation and may increase the risk of bleeding when used concurrently with therapeutic anticoagulants like heparin or warfarin, which are standard DVT treatments. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is generally preferred for pain management due to its lower bleeding risk.
Choice D rationale
Heparin (unfractionated or low molecular weight) is a common treatment for DVT. A severe complication of heparin therapy is Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT), an immune reaction leading to a significant drop in platelet count (normal range 150,000–450,000/mm) and paradoxical thrombosis. Therefore, monitoring platelet levels is crucial.
Choice E rationale
Applying ice (cold) to the extremity is a vasoconstrictor that can impair circulation and may reduce pain but is not the primary intervention for an acute DVT; it could theoretically worsen flow. Moist heat application is often preferred to promote vasodilation, which may reduce muscle spasms and provide comfort.
Choice F rationale
Compression stockings (graduated compression) help to reduce edema and promote venous return from the lower extremities, thereby reducing the symptoms of Post-Thrombotic Syndrome (PTS). The nurse must evaluate the fit to ensure the stockings are not too tight (risk for impaired arterial circulation) or too loose (ineffective compression).
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While pharmacodynamics can vary among individuals, this response fails to educate the client on the primary mechanism of action of heparin, which is its role as an anticoagulant. Heparin works by potentiating the action of antithrombin III, an enzyme that inactivates clotting factors like thrombin, thus preventing the formation and growth of new clots.
Choice B rationale
This response is factually incorrect regarding heparin's primary function. Thrombolytic agents, such as alteplase (tPA), are designed to dissolve established clots by activating plasminogen to plasmin, which breaks down the fibrin mesh. Heparin is an anticoagulant and does not directly lyse (dissolve) existing thrombi; it merely stops their growth.
Choice C rationale
This response is also scientifically inaccurate regarding heparin's action. Heparin's main therapeutic benefit in thrombophlebitis is preventing clot extension and subsequent embolization (movement) of the clot to other locations, such as the lungs (pulmonary embolism), by interfering with the coagulation cascade, not by actively breaking down the pre-existing clot mass.
Choice D rationale
Heparin is an anticoagulant, which functions by inhibiting the synthesis or activity of one or more coagulation factors, primarily by augmenting antithrombin III, thus preventing the formation of new clots and halting the growth of existing ones. Fibrinolytic or thrombolytic drugs are the agents that actually dissolve an established thrombus; therefore, this response is scientifically accurate.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Stress incontinence is characterized by the involuntary loss of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as coughing, sneezing, or lifting. This condition is typically caused by a weakened pelvic floor musculature or urethral sphincter incompetence, which is distinct from nerve damage following a spinal cord injury.
Choice B rationale
Overflow incontinence involves the involuntary leakage of urine from an overly full bladder that is unable to empty completely, leading to constant dribbling. This is often caused by an obstruction or an underactive detrusor muscle, resulting in large residual urine volumes, which is a potential but not the most specific result of spinal nerve damage.
Choice C rationale
Reflex incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine that occurs at somewhat predictable intervals when a specific bladder volume is reached, without the client sensing the need to void. This is directly caused by a lack of communication and control between the brain and the bladder, a common consequence of upper motor neuron damage following a spinal cord injury.
Choice D rationale
Urge incontinence, or overactive bladder, is the involuntary loss of urine associated with a sudden, strong desire to void (urgency). It is typically caused by involuntary contractions of the detrusor muscle and is generally not the specific type of neurogenic bladder dysfunction directly and primarily associated with a debilitating spinal cord injury.
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