A nurse is assisting with the admission of a client who has tuberculosis with a productive cough.
Which type of isolation precautions should the nurse initiate for the client?
Airborne.
Protective.
Droplet.
Contact.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Airborne precautions should be initiated for clients with tuberculosis (TB) who have a productive cough. TB is transmitted through the airborne route when an infected individual coughs, sneezes, or talks, releasing infectious droplets into the air. Airborne precautions include the use of negative-pressure isolation rooms and N95 respirators for healthcare workers to prevent the spread of TB.
Choice B rationale:
Protective precautions are not typically used for clients with TB. Protective precautions are more commonly employed for clients with compromised immune systems to protect them from infection.
Choice C rationale:
Droplet precautions are not sufficient for clients with TB because TB is primarily transmitted via airborne particles, not droplets. Droplet precautions are used for diseases like influenza or meningitis, which are transmitted through larger respiratory droplets.
Choice D rationale:
Contact precautions are not appropriate for clients with TB because TB is primarily transmitted through the airborne route. Contact precautions are typically used for diseases that are transmitted through direct contact with the client or contaminated surfaces.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice B: Administer the medication to the toddler each evening.
Choice B rationale: Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for the long-term management of asthma, especially in preventing nighttime symptoms. It is typically prescribed to be administered once daily in the evening to provide optimal therapeutic benefits. By instructing the parents to give the medication each evening, the nurse promotes adherence to the prescribed dosing schedule and helps maximize the medication's effectiveness in controlling the toddler's asthma symptoms.
Choice A rationale: While some medications can be mixed with juice or other liquids to make them more palatable for children, montelukast should not be dissolved in a drink. Instead, it can be mixed with a spoonful of cold, soft food, such as applesauce or ice cream, if necessary, to facilitate administration. Mixing with juice could potentially alter the medication's efficacy or create an unpleasant taste.
Choice C rationale: Montelukast is not indicated for use as a quick-relief medication prior to physical activity. It is a maintenance medication intended for long-term asthma control rather than immediate relief of acute symptoms. Providing an additional dose of montelukast before physical activity would not serve the intended purpose and could increase the risk of side effects.
Choice D rationale: Montelukast is not meant to be used as a rescue medication for acute asthma attacks. It is a long-term control medication that helps prevent asthma attacks and improve overall symptom management. For acute asthma attacks, the toddler would require a fast-acting beta-agonist or other appropriate rescue medication prescribed by their healthcare provider. Administering montelukast during an acute asthma attack would not provide the rapid relief needed to alleviate symptoms and could potentially delay appropriate treatment.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B and C.
Choice A rationale:
Cervical insufficiency is a condition where the cervix begins to shorten and open too early during pregnancy, leading to premature birth or loss of an otherwise healthy pregnancy. However, the client’s symptoms do not indicate cervical insufficiency. There are no reports of lower abdominal pressure, mild pelvic cramps, or a change in vaginal discharge, which are common symptoms of cervical insufficiency.
Choice B rationale:
The client’s severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen, +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities, and hyperactive reflexes (patellar reflex 4+) are indicative of severe preeclampsia. One of the complications of severe preeclampsia is seizures, also known as eclampsia. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing seizures.
Choice C rationale:
Placental abruption is a serious pregnancy complication in which the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely. The client’s report of decreased fetal movement could be a sign of placental abruption. In addition, severe preeclampsia can increase the risk of placental abruption. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing placental abruption.
Choice D rationale:
Heart failure occurs when the heart can’t pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. While preeclampsia can eventually affect many organ systems including the cardiovascular system, there are no immediate signs of heart failure in the client’s symptoms.
Choice E rationale:
Hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar levels. The client’s symptoms do not suggest hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia typically include confusion, dizziness, feeling shaky, hunger, headaches, irritability, pounding heart or irregular heartbeat, sweating, trembling or tremors, and weakness. In conclusion, based on the client’s symptoms and clinical presentation, she is at greatest risk for developing seizures (Choice B) and placental abruption (Choice C) due to severe preeclampsia.
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