A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is taking metoprolol. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Hypertension
Bradycardia
Urinary retention
Weight loss
The Correct Answer is B
Metoprolol is a beta-adrenergic blocker commonly used to manage hypertension, angina, heart failure, and certain arrhythmias. It works by selectively blocking beta-1 receptors in the heart, leading to decreased heart rate, reduced myocardial contractility, and lowered cardiac output. While these effects are therapeutic, they can also produce predictable adverse effects that require close nursing monitoring. Understanding these effects helps prevent complications such as excessive cardiac suppression.
Rationale:
A. Hypertension is not an expected adverse effect of metoprolol; instead, the medication is prescribed to lower blood pressure. By blocking beta-1 receptors, it reduces cardiac output and inhibits renin release from the kidneys, both of which contribute to decreased blood pressure. An increase in blood pressure would indicate treatment failure or another underlying issue rather than a drug side effect.
B. Bradycardia is a common adverse effect of metoprolol due to its action on beta-1 receptors in the heart. By decreasing sympathetic stimulation, it slows the sinoatrial node firing rate and reduces heart rate. Excessive bradycardia can lead to dizziness, fatigue, hypotension, or syncope and requires careful monitoring and possible dose adjustment.
C. Urinary retention is not typically associated with metoprolol use. This adverse effect is more commonly linked to anticholinergic medications or drugs that affect bladder contractility. Metoprolol primarily acts on cardiac receptors and does not significantly interfere with urinary function.
D. Weight loss is not a characteristic adverse effect of metoprolol. Beta-blockers are more commonly associated with weight gain in some patients due to reduced metabolic rate and fatigue-related activity changes. Therefore, unexpected weight loss would suggest an unrelated condition rather than a direct medication effect.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Explanation
In clinical practice, when a provider issues new prescriptions, the nurse must prioritize administration based on the client’s current physiological stability and the severity of their symptoms, in this case, an older adult ICU client with suspected postoperative infection and worsening sepsis. The client presents with fever, hypotension, elevated and rising WBC count, and an infected surgical wound with purulent drainage. These findings indicate an active bacterial infection requiring urgent antimicrobial therapy. In sepsis management, treating the underlying infection takes priority over symptom control measures such as fever reduction or anxiety management.
Rationale for correct choices:
• Antibiotic: The priority intervention is administration of the prescribed antibiotic because the client shows clear signs of systemic infection progressing toward sepsis. The infected surgical wound with purulent drainage, fever, hypotension, and increasing WBC count confirm an active bacterial process. Cefazolin targets the underlying cause, which is essential to stop infection progression and prevent further organ dysfunction. Without timely antibiotic therapy, the client’s condition will continue to deteriorate despite supportive care.
• WBC count: The rising WBC count is a key indicator of worsening infection and systemic inflammatory response. It reflects the body’s immune response to bacterial invasion and helps confirm the severity of sepsis. The increase from 14,000/mm³ to 15,000/mm³ indicates progression despite initial concern. This laboratory trend supports prioritizing antibiotic therapy over symptom-focused interventions.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
• Antipyretic: Antipyretics such as acetaminophen help reduce fever but do not treat the underlying infection causing the client’s instability. Although the client has an elevated temperature, fever is a symptom rather than the primary problem. Administering antipyretics without treating the infection could mask worsening sepsis.
• Anti-anxiety medication: Alprazolam may help manage agitation or anxiety, but it does not address the life-threatening infectious process. The client’s restlessness is likely secondary to delirium caused by infection and fever. Sedating the client without treating the cause may worsen confusion and respiratory status.
• Restlessness: This is a clinical manifestation of delirium and infection-related distress, but it is not the primary indicator guiding urgent treatment decisions. It is a symptom rather than an objective marker of disease progression. While it requires supportive care, it does not direct priority pharmacologic therapy. Laboratory evidence of infection (WBC count) is more critical for guiding immediate treatment.
• Temperature: This reflects the presence of fever, which is a symptom of infection but not the most reliable indicator for prioritizing treatment in this scenario. Although the client is febrile (39.1°C), fever alone does not quantify the severity or progression of infection as accurately as laboratory findings such as WBC trends. In sepsis management, rising WBC count and hemodynamic instability provide stronger evidence of systemic infection requiring immediate antibiotic therapy.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Client education is most effective when the learner is physically and psychologically ready to receive information. Various physiological and emotional factors can interfere with attention, concentration, and information processing. Pain is one of the most significant barriers to learning because it consumes cognitive resources and limits the ability to focus. Nurses must assess readiness before initiating teaching to ensure optimal understanding and retention.
Rationale:
A. A pain score of 8 out of 10 represents severe pain, which significantly impairs concentration and cognitive processing. The client’s attention is primarily focused on discomfort, making it difficult to absorb new information or participate actively in teaching. Pain should be managed before initiating education to enhance learning effectiveness.
B. Anticipation about upcoming discharge may actually enhance readiness to learn because it indicates motivation and engagement in self-care planning. Mild anxiety may be present, but it does not necessarily impair learning unless it becomes overwhelming. This finding is not a barrier but may support learning readiness.
C. Participation in physical therapy 2 hours ago does not inherently interfere with learning unless the client is fatigued or in pain. If the client is stable and rested, prior activity may even promote readiness for education. Therefore, this finding alone does not indicate a learning barrier.
D. Having 2+ pitting edema in the lower extremities is a physical finding that does not directly affect cognitive ability or learning readiness. It may indicate an underlying medical condition, but it does not impair attention or information processing unless associated with discomfort or other systemic symptoms. Therefore, it is not a primary barrier to learning.
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