A nurse is assessing a postpartum client during a follow-up visit.
What was the client’s score on the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Screen?
Score of 9 on postpartum day 2.
Score of 11 on postpartum day 30.
Discharge teaching completed.
Will follow-up with provider in 4 weeks.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
A score of 9 on the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Screen (EPDS) on postpartum day 2 is below the clinical cutoff score of 10, which is used to distinguish health controls versus possible depression. Therefore, this score would not indicate a high risk of developing a depressive disorder.
Choice B rationale
A score of 11 on the EPDS on postpartum day 30 is above the clinical cutoff score of 1034. This score indicates a high risk of developing a depressive disorder. Therefore, further assessment and possible intervention would be necessary.
Choice C rationale
While discharge teaching is an important aspect of postpartum care, it does not provide information about the client’s risk of developing postpartum depression. Therefore, this choice does not answer the question.
Choice D rationale
A follow-up appointment with a provider in 4 weeks is a standard part of postpartum care, but it does not provide information about the client’s risk of developing postpartum depression.
Therefore, this choice does not answer the question.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A thick, white vaginal discharge is more commonly associated with a yeast infection, not trichomoniasis.
Choice B rationale
Vulva lesions are not a typical symptom of trichomoniasis. They can be associated with other conditions such as herpes.
Choice C rationale
Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by a parasite. One of the common symptoms in women is a foul-smelling vaginal discharge, which can be clear, white, yellowish, or greenish.
Choice D rationale
While urinary frequency can occur with trichomoniasis, it is not as specific or common as malodorous discharge.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Gestational diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication for a contraction stress test. This condition affects how the mother’s body uses glucose (sugar) during pregnancy, but it does not interfere with the ability to perform a contraction stress test.
Choice B rationale
A previous stillbirth is not a contraindication for a contraction stress test. A stillbirth refers to the loss of a baby after 20 weeks of pregnancy. While this is a significant event, it does not prevent the mother from undergoing a contraction stress test in a subsequent pregnancy.
Choice C rationale
A nonreactive nonstress test is not a contraindication for a contraction stress test. A nonreactive nonstress test indicates that the baby’s heart rate does not speed up (or “react”) as it should when the baby moves. However, this result does not prevent the mother from undergoing a contraction stress test.
Choice D rationale
A previous classical incision is a contraindication for a contraction stress test. A classical incision refers to a vertical cut in the upper part of the uterus, which is typically used during a cesarean section. This type of incision increases the risk of uterine rupture, which can be life- threatening for both the mother and the baby. Therefore, a contraction stress test, which induces contractions, should not be performed due to the risk of uterine rupture.
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