A nurse is assessing a full-term newborn upon admission to the nursery.
Which of the following clinical findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Rust-stained urine.
Subconjunctival hemorrhage.
Single palmar creases.
Transient circumoral cyanosis.
The Correct Answer is C
Rationales
A. Rust-stained urine.
Rust or brick-dust staining in the diaper is usually caused by urate crystals in the urine. This is a common and benign finding in newborns during the first days of life, particularly when fluid intake is still low. It does not require provider notification unless it persists beyond the first week or is accompanied by other abnormalities.
B. Subconjunctival hemorrhage.
A subconjunctival hemorrhage often results from pressure during delivery, especially in vaginal births. It appears as a bright red patch on the sclera but is harmless and resolves spontaneously within several weeks. It is considered a normal newborn finding and does not need to be reported.
C. Single palmar creases.
A single transverse palmar crease, also known as a simian crease, can be associated with chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome. While it may sometimes be an isolated normal variant, its presence warrants further evaluation. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for assessment and potential genetic follow-up.
D. Transient circumoral cyanosis.
Brief bluish discoloration around the lips in a newborn is typically due to vasomotor instability and is common when the infant is crying or cold. As long as the central mucous membranes remain pink and oxygenation is normal, this finding is not concerning and usually resolves without intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
It’s normal for blood pressure to fall a little when a client receives an epidural.
If necessary, fluids and medicine can be given through a drip to keep blood pressure normal.
Choice A) is not correct because initiating an amnioinfusion is not mentioned as an immediate intervention for low blood pressure after epidural anesthesia .
Choice C) is not correct because monitoring the client’s blood pressure every 15 min is not mentioned as an immediate intervention for low blood pressure after epidural anesthesia .
Choice D) is not correct because administering naloxone to the client is not mentioned as an immediate intervention for low blood pressure after epidural anesthesia .
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A client who is 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated is in active labor and at risk for postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice A is not an answer because ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside of the uterus and is not a risk for a client who is in active labor.
Choice C is not an answer because an incompetent cervix refers to a cervix that dilates prematurely during pregnancy and is not a risk for a client who is in active labor.
Choice D is not an answer because hyperemesis gravidarum refers to severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy and is not a risk for a client who is in active labor.
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