A nurse is assessing a client’s pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). The nurse should recognize that an elevated PAWP indicates which of the following complications?

Cardiogenic shock

Left ventricular failure

Hypotension

Hypovolemia

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Cardiogenic shock involves reduced cardiac output, typically with low PAWP due to decreased preload from poor heart function. Elevated PAWP reflects left atrial pressure buildup, not characteristic of cardiogenic shock alone, which is distinct from heart failure, requiring specific hemodynamic management.
Choice B reason: Elevated PAWP indicates left ventricular failure, where the heart cannot pump blood effectively, causing pulmonary congestion. This increases left atrial pressure, leading to pulmonary edema, a hallmark of heart failure. Diuretics and inotropes are needed to reduce fluid overload and improve cardiac function.
Choice C reason: Hypotension is a symptom, not a direct complication of elevated PAWP. It may occur in heart failure due to reduced cardiac output, but elevated PAWP specifically signals left heart dysfunction, not hypotension itself, which is a systemic response rather than a primary cardiac issue.
Choice D reason: Hypovolemia reduces blood volume, lowering PAWP due to decreased preload. Elevated PAWP suggests fluid overload or left ventricular dysfunction, not hypovolemia, which presents with low central venous pressure and dehydration signs, requiring fluid resuscitation rather than management of heart failure.

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Correct Answer is ["B","C"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: Telling the daughter not to worry dismisses her emotional concerns and does not facilitate open communication. Addressing fears about a loved one’s death requires empathy and discussion to process grief and understand hospice care, which focuses on comfort. This response is inappropriate, as it avoids addressing the daughter’s needs.
Choice B reason: Acknowledging the daughter’s concerns about her mother’s death and inviting discussion is therapeutic. It validates her emotions, encouraging open dialogue about grief, hospice care, and end-of-life expectations. This approach supports psychological coping, aligns with palliative care principles, and helps the daughter prepare for her mother’s transition, making it appropriate.
Choice C reason: Discussing the mother’s cancer and its implications helps the daughter understand the disease progression and hospice care’s role in symptom management. This fosters informed communication, addressing fears and clarifying expectations. It supports emotional preparation for end-of-life discussions, making this response appropriate for facilitating understanding and coping.
Choice D reason: Encouraging the daughter to avoid thinking about dying dismisses the reality of the situation and hinders emotional processing. Hospice care involves preparing for end-of-life, and open discussions about death are therapeutic. This response is inappropriate, as it discourages necessary conversations about the mother’s condition and prognosis.

A. Clients exhibit a stable sense of self and consistent relationships. B. Clients often engage in self-harming behaviors. C. Clients respond well to group therapy as the primary treatment. D. Clients rarely experience mood swings or emotional instability.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Clients with borderline personality disorder (BPD) typically exhibit an unstable sense of self and tumultuous relationships, not stability. Their identity disturbances and fear of abandonment lead to chaotic interpersonal dynamics, making this statement incorrect as it misrepresents core BPD characteristics.
Choice B reason: Self-harming behaviors, such as cutting or suicidal gestures, are common in BPD due to emotional dysregulation and impulsivity. These actions serve as maladaptive coping mechanisms for intense emotions, aligning with DSM-5 criteria for BPD, making this the correct information to include.
Choice C reason: While group therapy can be beneficial, dialectical behavior therapy (DBT), an individual and skills-based approach, is the primary evidence-based treatment for BPD. Group therapy alone is not the standard, as it may not address individual emotional regulation needs, making this statement inaccurate.
Choice D reason: Clients with BPD frequently experience mood swings and emotional instability, a hallmark of the disorder due to affective dysregulation. This contradicts the statement, as BPD involves rapid mood shifts, not stability, making this information incorrect for describing BPD characteristics.

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A nurse is assessing a client’s pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). The nurse should recognize that an elevated PAWP indicates which of the following complications?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has cancer and is being transferred to hospice care. The client’s daughter tells the nurse, “I’m not sure what to say to my mom if she asks me about dying.” Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer is ["B","C"]

Explanation

A nurse is developing an in-service about personality disorders. Which of the following information should the nurse include when discussing borderline personality disorder?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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