A nurse is assessing a client’s pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). The nurse should recognize that an elevated PAWP indicates which of the following complications?
Cardiogenic shock
Left ventricular failure
Hypotension
Hypovolemia
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Cardiogenic shock involves reduced cardiac output, typically with low PAWP due to decreased preload from poor heart function. Elevated PAWP reflects left atrial pressure buildup, not characteristic of cardiogenic shock alone, which is distinct from heart failure, requiring specific hemodynamic management.
Choice B reason: Elevated PAWP indicates left ventricular failure, where the heart cannot pump blood effectively, causing pulmonary congestion. This increases left atrial pressure, leading to pulmonary edema, a hallmark of heart failure. Diuretics and inotropes are needed to reduce fluid overload and improve cardiac function.
Choice C reason: Hypotension is a symptom, not a direct complication of elevated PAWP. It may occur in heart failure due to reduced cardiac output, but elevated PAWP specifically signals left heart dysfunction, not hypotension itself, which is a systemic response rather than a primary cardiac issue.
Choice D reason: Hypovolemia reduces blood volume, lowering PAWP due to decreased preload. Elevated PAWP suggests fluid overload or left ventricular dysfunction, not hypovolemia, which presents with low central venous pressure and dehydration signs, requiring fluid resuscitation rather than management of heart failure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Bleeding time assesses platelet function, not warfarin’s anticoagulant effect. Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, unrelated to platelets. Monitoring bleeding time does not reflect therapeutic anticoagulation levels, making it irrelevant for adjusting warfarin doses to prevent thrombosis or bleeding.
Choice B reason: Factor VIII, deficient in hemophilia A, is not affected by warfarin, which targets vitamin K-dependent factors (II, VII, IX, X). Measuring Factor VIII does not indicate warfarin’s efficacy, as it is unrelated to the drug’s mechanism, making it unsuitable for dose monitoring.
Choice C reason: aPTT monitors heparin’s effect on the intrinsic clotting pathway, not warfarin’s action on vitamin K-dependent factors. Warfarin requires INR for therapeutic monitoring, as aPTT is insensitive to its effects, making it inappropriate for assessing warfarin’s anticoagulation range in patients.
Choice D reason: INR standardizes prothrombin time, measuring warfarin’s effect on vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. It ensures therapeutic anticoagulation (e.g., INR 2-3), preventing thrombosis or bleeding. INR is the gold standard for warfarin monitoring, guiding dose adjustments for safe and effective therapy.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Reassuring the client about future children minimizes her current grief and loss, which is inappropriate during initial grieving. This dismisses the emotional significance of the stillbirth, potentially causing distress, making it an insensitive and incorrect action.
Choice B reason: Discouraging friends from seeing the newborn restricts the client’s support system and grieving process. Allowing such interactions can provide closure and comfort, so this action is counterproductive and insensitive, making it incorrect for supporting grief.
Choice C reason: Offering to take pictures of the newborn provides a tangible memory, supporting the client’s grieving process. This sensitive intervention validates the loss and aids emotional healing, aligning with best practices for stillbirth care, making it the correct action.
Choice D reason: Advising against discussing the stillbirth isolates the client and hinders grief processing. Open communication with family fosters support and healing, so this action is harmful and contradicts grief support principles, making it incorrect.
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