A nurse is assessing a client's pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). The nurse should recognize that an elevated PAWP indicates which of the following complications?
Hypovolemia
Hypotension
Left ventricular failure
Cardiogenic shock
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. Hypovolemia: Hypovolemia causes a decrease in PAWP due to reduced circulating blood volume and inadequate venous return to the heart. A low PAWP reflects decreased left ventricular preload, not an elevated value.
B. Hypotension: Hypotension alone does not directly increase PAWP. In fact, low blood pressure often accompanies decreased cardiac filling pressures. Elevated PAWP typically occurs with fluid overload or impaired ventricular function rather than simple hypotension.
C. Left ventricular failure: An elevated PAWP indicates increased left-sided heart pressures due to ineffective left ventricular pumping. Blood backs up into the pulmonary circulation, leading to pulmonary congestion and edema.
D. Cardiogenic shock: In cardiogenic shock, PAWP can be elevated due to impaired contractility, but it is accompanied by low cardiac output and hypotension. While related, the elevated PAWP in cardiogenic shock results from the underlying left ventricular failure, which is the primary cause of the pressure increase.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Having no vesicles prevents the spread of transmission: HSV-2 can be transmitted even when no visible lesions are present through asymptomatic viral shedding. The client should use barrier protection, such as condoms, during all sexual activity to reduce transmission.
B. Antibiotics are the primary treatment for this infection: HSV-2 is a viral infection, and antibiotics are ineffective against viruses. The mainstay of treatment involves antiviral medications such as acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir.
C. It is a latent infection that may reactivate periodically: HSV-2 remains dormant in nerve ganglia after the initial infection and can reactivate intermittently, leading to recurrent outbreaks triggered by stress, illness, or immunosuppression.
D. It is recommended any partners receive a vaccine to prevent this infection: There is currently no vaccine available to prevent HSV-2 infection. Prevention relies on consistent condom use, abstaining during outbreaks, and open communication with sexual partners about infection status.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. A client who has dementia and is incontinent of urine: Cognitive impairment and incontinence significantly increase the risk for pressure injuries. Dementia may limit mobility and the ability to communicate discomfort, while moisture from incontinence leads to skin breakdown, making this client the highest risk.
B. A client who has had a recent myocardial infarction: While immobility after a myocardial infarction can contribute to pressure injury risk, this client typically has fewer direct risk factors compared with incontinence and cognitive impairment.
C. A client who has a T-tube following an open cholecystectomy: Postoperative clients with a T-tube are at moderate risk due to temporary immobility, but they usually maintain mobility and can reposition, reducing overall risk compared with incontinent or cognitively impaired clients.
D. A client who is 2 days postoperative following orthopedic surgery: Early postoperative orthopedic clients are at risk due to immobility, but with appropriate repositioning, pressure-relieving devices, and monitoring, their risk is generally lower than a client with incontinence and dementia.
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