A nurse is assessing a client's fingers. The client complains of a swollen, painful knuckle and not being able to remove a ring from that finger. The nurse recognizes which of the following is the correct term for the affected joint.
Interphalangeal
Tibiotalar
Metacarpophalangeal
Tarsometatarsal
The Correct Answer is A
A. Interphalangeal joints are the joints between the phalanges, since the client is unable to remove a ring, the most likely affected joint is the interphalangeal joint.
B. The Tibiotalar joint is the ankle joint.
C. Metacarpophalangeal joint refers to the joint between the metacarpal bones in the upper limbs and the phalanges.
D. Tarsometatarsal joints are the joints between the tarsal bones of the foot and metatarsal bones.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. 4+ edema is characterized by very deep pitting, where the indentation remains for an extended period (several minutes), indicating severe fluid accumulation in the tissue.
B. Deep pitting that lasts for a few minutes is more consistent with 2+ or 3+ edema, not the severe 4+ edema described.
C. Mild pitting with no perceptible swelling does not align with 4+ edema; this level of pitting suggests minimal fluid accumulation.
D. Moderate pitting where the indentation subsides rapidly is indicative of 2+ edema, not the profound swelling described as 4+ edema.
Correct Answer is ["A"]
Explanation
A. Abdominal distention can occur due to gas accumulation from undigested lactose.
B. Visible peristalsis is not typically a specific clinical finding associated with lactose intolerance.
C. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not commonly associated with lactose intolerance.
D. Occasional diarrhea is a common symptom due to the inability to digest lactose properly.
E. Flatus or excessive gas production is a common symptom due to the fermentation of undigested lactose by intestinal bacteria.
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