A nurse is assessing a client's fingers. The client complains of a swollen, painful knuckle and not being able to remove a ring from that finger. The nurse recognizes which of the following is the correct term for the affected joint.

Interphalangeal

Tibiotalar

Metacarpophalangeal

Tarsometatarsal

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   Interphalangeal joints are the joints between the phalanges, since the client is unable to remove a ring, the most likely affected joint is the interphalangeal joint.
B.   The Tibiotalar joint is the ankle joint.
C.   Metacarpophalangeal joint refers to the joint between the metacarpal bones in the upper limbs and the phalanges.
D.   Tarsometatarsal joints are the joints between the tarsal bones of the foot and metatarsal bones.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. This option inaccurately includes "electrical impulse stimulators," which is not a recognized component of the central nervous system. The central nervous system comprises the brain and spinal cord.
B. The hypothalamus and cerebral nerves are parts of the nervous system but do not represent the entirety of the central nervous system.
C. The central nervous system consists specifically of the brain and spinal cord, responsible for coordinating and processing sensory information.
D. The peripheral and autonomic components belong to the broader nervous system but are not part of the central nervous system.

A. Very deep pitting indentation of legs lasts several minutes. B. Deep pitting indentation of legs lasts a few minutes. C. Mild pitting, no perceptible swelling of the legs. D. Moderate pitting: indentation of legs subsides rapidly.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. 4+ edema is characterized by very deep pitting, where the indentation remains for an extended period (several minutes), indicating severe fluid accumulation in the tissue.
B. Deep pitting that lasts for a few minutes is more consistent with 2+ or 3+ edema, not the severe 4+ edema described.
C. Mild pitting with no perceptible swelling does not align with 4+ edema; this level of pitting suggests minimal fluid accumulation.
D. Moderate pitting where the indentation subsides rapidly is indicative of 2+ edema, not the profound swelling described as 4+ edema.

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A nurse is assessing a client's fingers. The client complains of a swollen, painful knuckle and not being able to remove a ring from that finger. The nurse recognizes which of the following is the correct term for the affected joint.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The student nurse is studying the functioning of the nervous system. Which of the following descriptions of the central nervous system is accurate?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client drove himself to the urgent care center for, "Legs that look like balloons and difficulty walking." The nurse assesses 4+ edema of both legs based upon which finding?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

During an abdominal assessment, the nurse is unable to hear bowel sounds in a client's abdomen. How long should the nurse listen before reporting absent bowel sounds?

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The nurse suspects that a client has carpal tunnel syndrome and prepares to conduct the Phalen test. What instructions should the nurse give the client to perform the Phalen test?

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