A nurse is assessing a client's fingers. The client complains of a swollen, painful knuckle and not being able to remove a ring from that finger. The nurse recognizes which of the following is the correct term for the affected joint.
Interphalangeal
Tibiotalar
Metacarpophalangeal
Tarsometatarsal
The Correct Answer is A
A. Interphalangeal joints are the joints between the phalanges, since the client is unable to remove a ring, the most likely affected joint is the interphalangeal joint.
B. The Tibiotalar joint is the ankle joint.
C. Metacarpophalangeal joint refers to the joint between the metacarpal bones in the upper limbs and the phalanges.
D. Tarsometatarsal joints are the joints between the tarsal bones of the foot and metatarsal bones.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. African Americans typically have a higher bone density compared to Caucasians and tend to have a lower risk of osteoporosis.
B. Asian men also have a lower risk due to generally higher bone density than Caucasians.
C. Postmenopausal Caucasian women have a higher risk due to hormonal changes after menopause, leading to decreased bone density.
D. American Indians can have varying risks but are not typically considered a population with the highest risk for osteoporosis.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Timing for testicular examination isn't as crucial as recognizing changes in the testicles. While showering might facilitate the exam, it's not the only appropriate time.
B. Noticing an enlargement or painless lump is a crucial sign that requires immediate medical attention for evaluation.
C. Performing a testicular examination once a week might not be necessary for most individuals. Monthly self-examination is often recommended.
D. Describing the testicle's normal characteristics is helpful, but recognizing changes such as lumps or enlargements is more critical for self-examination.
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