A nurse is assessing a client with a temperature of 39°C (102.2°F) and a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?

Septic shock.

Cardiogenic shock.

Neurogenic shock.

Anaphylactic shock.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale
Septic shock is a severe infection leading to systemic inflammation, characterized by high fever (39°C), low blood pressure (90/60 mmHg), and signs of organ dysfunction. It is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
Choice B rationale
Cardiogenic shock is caused by the heart’s inability to pump blood effectively, leading to hypotension and signs of poor perfusion, but not necessarily high fever.
Choice C rationale
Neurogenic shock results from a disruption in the autonomic pathways, leading to hypotension and bradycardia, but not high fever.
Choice D rationale
Anaphylactic shock is a severe allergic reaction causing hypotension, respiratory distress, and other symptoms, but not typically high fever.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Decreasing the secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) by the pituitary gland is not a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit. TSH primarily regulates thyroid function and metabolism, and its secretion is not directly related to fluid balance or osmolality.
Choice B rationale
Increasing renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) activity by the kidneys is the body’s primary compensatory response to fluid volume deficit. When there is a decrease in blood volume or blood pressure, the kidneys release renin, which activates the RAAS. This system increases the reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys, leading to an increase in blood volume and blood pressure.
Choice C rationale
Decreasing the secretion of cortisol by the adrenal gland is not a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit. Cortisol is a stress hormone that helps regulate metabolism, immune response, and other functions, but it is not directly involved in fluid balance.
Choice D rationale
Increasing the secretion of natriuretic peptides by the heart is a response to fluid overload, not fluid deficit. Natriuretic peptides promote the excretion of sodium and water by the kidneys, which helps reduce blood volume and pressure. This response is opposite to what is needed in a fluid volume deficit situation.

A. This intracellular substance can leak into the blood with cardiac cellular injury or death. B. Elevated serum levels of troponin occur because of sustained glycogenolysis. C. This substance is elevated when a patient has acute tubular necrosis. D. Serum elevation of this acute phase reactant occurs because of tissue injury.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Elevated serum levels of troponin indicate cardiac cellular injury or death. Troponin is a protein released into the bloodstream when heart muscle cells are damaged, such as during a myocardial infarction.
Choice B rationale
Sustained glycogenolysis does not cause elevated troponin levels. Glycogenolysis is the breakdown of glycogen to glucose, primarily occurring in the liver and muscles, not related to troponin release.
Choice C rationale
Acute tubular necrosis does not elevate troponin levels. This condition affects the renal tubules and is typically indicated by elevated creatinine and BUN levels.
Choice D rationale
Troponin is not an acute phase reactant. Acute phase reactants are proteins whose levels change in response to inflammation, such as C-reactive protein (CRP), not troponin.

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A nurse is assessing a client with a temperature of 39°C (102.2°F) and a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

What is the significance of elevated serum levels of troponin?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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