A patient presents to the emergency department (ED) complaining of nausea, vomiting, and the “worst headache he has ever experienced.”. While examining the patient, the nurse notes left leg and arm weakness.
The patient is immediately sent to the radiology department for a CT scan.
The registered nurse (RN) identifies the immediate need for treatment because:
A hemorrhagic brain attack is more common than an ischemic brain attack.
A thrombolytic drug will cause the peripheral and central reflexes to become hyper-reactive.
A hemorrhagic brain attack requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage.
An ischemic brain attack is less severe than a hemorrhagic brain attack.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
A hemorrhagic brain attack (stroke) is less common than an ischemic brain attack. Ischemic strokes account for the majority of strokes.
Choice B rationale
Thrombolytic drugs are used to treat ischemic strokes, not hemorrhagic strokes. They do not cause hyper-reactive reflexes.
Choice C rationale
A hemorrhagic brain attack requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. Hemorrhagic strokes involve bleeding in the brain, which can rapidly worsen and cause severe damage.
Choice D rationale
An ischemic brain attack is not necessarily less severe than a hemorrhagic brain attack. Both types of strokes are serious, but hemorrhagic strokes often require more urgent intervention due to the risk of ongoing bleeding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice D rationale
Positioning the client on the abdomen for 20 to 30 minutes twice a day helps prevent hip flexion contractures. This position stretches the hip flexor muscles, reducing the risk of contractures and promoting better range of motion.
Choice A rationale
Maintaining the client in a supine position does not effectively prevent hip flexion contractures. It is important to vary the client’s position to avoid stiffness and promote mobility.
Choice B rationale
Maintaining a high-Fowler’s position when the client is in bed can increase the risk of hip flexion contractures. This position keeps the hip flexed, which can lead to contractures over time.
Choice C rationale
Elevating the stump on a pillow can help reduce swelling but does not address the prevention of hip flexion contractures. The focus should be on positioning that stretches the hip flexors.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Decreasing the secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) by the pituitary gland is not a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit. TSH primarily regulates thyroid function and metabolism, and its secretion is not directly related to fluid balance or osmolality.
Choice B rationale
Increasing renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) activity by the kidneys is the body’s primary compensatory response to fluid volume deficit. When there is a decrease in blood volume or blood pressure, the kidneys release renin, which activates the RAAS. This system increases the reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys, leading to an increase in blood volume and blood pressure.
Choice C rationale
Decreasing the secretion of cortisol by the adrenal gland is not a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit. Cortisol is a stress hormone that helps regulate metabolism, immune response, and other functions, but it is not directly involved in fluid balance.
Choice D rationale
Increasing the secretion of natriuretic peptides by the heart is a response to fluid overload, not fluid deficit. Natriuretic peptides promote the excretion of sodium and water by the kidneys, which helps reduce blood volume and pressure. This response is opposite to what is needed in a fluid volume deficit situation.
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