A nurse is assessing a client who takes salmeterol to treat moderate asthma. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication has been effective?

The client's daily peak expiratory flow (PEF) measures 85% above personal best.

The client's ABGs show a pH level of 7.32.

The client's forced expiratory volume is decreased after treatment with medication.

The client's wheezing is limited to expiratory.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

The client's daily peak expiratory flow (PEF) measures 85% above personal best.

Choice A rationale:

Salmeterol is a long-acting beta-agonist used to treat asthma. Improvement in the client's daily peak expiratory flow (PEF) of 85% above their personal best indicates effective bronchodilation and better asthma control.

Choice B rationale:

ABGs showing a pH level of 7.32 are not indicative of the effectiveness of salmeterol. ABG values assess the client's acid-base balance and gas exchange, but they do not directly reflect the action of the medication.

Choice C rationale:

A decrease in forced expiratory volume after treatment with medication indicates a lack of response to the therapy, not an effective outcome. It suggests the medication is not adequately controlling the client's asthma symptoms.

Choice D rationale:

Wheezing limited to expiration is not a clear indicator of medication effectiveness. Wheezing can be present in various respiratory conditions and is not solely associated with asthma control. Exhibit. The correct answer is choice B: Increase the rate of the infusion by 160 units/hr.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 0.8 is within the normal range for someone not on anticoagulation therapy. The aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) of 85 seconds is prolonged, but it is not a reason to withhold heparin in itself. Therefore, the nurse should not withhold the medication for these values.
Choice B rationale:
An INR of 2 indicates the client's blood is taking twice as long to clot compared to the average, which can increase the risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 60 seconds is within the normal range. However, the elevated INR suggests the client might be overly anticoagulated, so the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider.

A. Apply clean gloves when removing the old dressing from the catheter site. B. Cleanse the area by using a circular motion beginning at the catheter site and moving outward. C. Use warm water to cleanse the catheter site. D. Place an occlusive dressing over the catheter site after cleaning.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Applying clean gloves when removing the old dressing from the catheter site is essential to prevent infection and maintain an aseptic technique during peritoneal dialysis catheter care. Gloves protect both the nurse and the patient from potential contamination.
Choice B rationale:
Cleansing the area by using a circular motion beginning at the catheter site and moving outward is not the correct technique. When caring for a dialysis catheter, the nurse should cleanse the site using an outward, circular motion starting from the insertion site to minimize the risk of contamination.
Choice C rationale:
Using warm water to cleanse the catheter site is not recommended. The peritoneal dialysis catheter site should be cleaned with an appropriate antiseptic solution or disinfectant, as warm water alone may not effectively remove bacteria or prevent infections.
Choice D rationale:
Placing an occlusive dressing over the catheter site after cleaning is not the standard practice for peritoneal dialysis catheter care. Typically, a clean, dry dressing is applied to the catheter site after cleaning to keep it clean and dry, but it should not be occlusive.

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A nurse is assessing a client who takes salmeterol to treat moderate asthma. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication has been effective?

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