A nurse is assessing a client who takes salmeterol to treat moderate asthma. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication has been effective?
The client's daily peak expiratory flow (PEF) measures 85% above personal best.
The client's ABGs show a pH level of 7.32.
The client's forced expiratory volume is decreased after treatment with medication.
The client's wheezing is limited to expiratory.
The Correct Answer is A
The client's daily peak expiratory flow (PEF) measures 85% above personal best.
Choice A rationale:
Salmeterol is a long-acting beta-agonist used to treat asthma. Improvement in the client's daily peak expiratory flow (PEF) of 85% above their personal best indicates effective bronchodilation and better asthma control.
Choice B rationale:
ABGs showing a pH level of 7.32 are not indicative of the effectiveness of salmeterol. ABG values assess the client's acid-base balance and gas exchange, but they do not directly reflect the action of the medication.
Choice C rationale:
A decrease in forced expiratory volume after treatment with medication indicates a lack of response to the therapy, not an effective outcome. It suggests the medication is not adequately controlling the client's asthma symptoms.
Choice D rationale:
Wheezing limited to expiration is not a clear indicator of medication effectiveness. Wheezing can be present in various respiratory conditions and is not solely associated with asthma control. Exhibit. The correct answer is choice B: Increase the rate of the infusion by 160 units/hr.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count is an expected manifestation in a client with suspected appendicitis. Inflammation in the appendix leads to an immune response, causing an increase in WBC count.
Choice B rationale:
Elevated amylase level is not typically associated with appendicitis. Elevated amylase is more commonly seen in pancreatitis, not appendicitis.
Choice C rationale:
Rebound tenderness, which refers to increased pain when pressure is released rather than applied, is a classic symptom of appendicitis. The nurse should expect to find rebound tenderness during the abdominal assessment.
Choice D rationale:
Ascites are not a common manifestation of appendicitis. Ascites is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity and are more commonly seen in liver cirrhosis and certain other conditions, but not in appendicitis.
Choice E rationale:
Anorexia, or loss of appetite, can be seen in clients with appendicitis due to the inflammation and discomfort in the abdominal region.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
An elevated WBC count (11,000/mm²) in a client starting treatment for MRSA infection may indicate an inflammatory response, but it is expected in this scenario, and the priority is not as high as other critical lab values.
Choice B rationale:
A serum pH of 7.25 indicates acidosis, which is a potentially life-threatening condition. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a common complication that can lead to metabolic acidosis. This lab result is a priority as it requires immediate attention.
Choice C rationale:
Hematocrit of 26% in a client with sickle cell disease might be low, but it is not the priority over the critically abnormal lab value of serum pH in option B.
Choice D rationale:
A urine specific gravity of 1.032 in a client diagnosed with dehydration is elevated, indicating concentrated urine due to dehydration. While dehydration is concerning, it is not as high-priority as the potentially life-threatening acidosis in option B.
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