A nurse is assessing a client who is postpartum and is experiencing hemorrhagic shock.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Hypertension.
Bradypnea.
Tachycardia.
Polyuria.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Hemorrhagic shock results from significant blood loss, leading to decreased circulating blood volume and subsequent hypotension. Therefore, hypertension is not expected; instead, the nurse should anticipate hypotension as a classic sign, indicating the body's compensatory mechanisms are failing to maintain adequate perfusion. Systolic blood pressure below 90 mmHg is a common indicator of shock.
Choice B rationale
Initial compensatory mechanisms in shock, driven by the sympathetic nervous system, usually include tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) to enhance oxygenation and address resulting metabolic acidosis. Bradypnea (abnormally slow respiratory rate, normal 12-20 breaths/min) is a late and ominous sign, reflecting profound central nervous system depression and circulatory failure.
Choice C rationale
Tachycardia (heart rate >100 beats/min) is an early and compensatory sign of hemorrhagic shock, triggered by the release of catecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine). The sympathetic nervous system increases the heart rate and contractility to compensate for the reduced stroke volume caused by the hypovolemia and maintain cardiac output and tissue perfusion.
Choice D rationale
Hemorrhagic shock causes a severe reduction in renal blood flow due to vasoconstriction and low systemic pressure. This results in oliguria (urine output <30 mL/hr) or anuria, not polyuria. Decreased urine output is a critical indicator of inadequate perfusion to the kidneys and is a classic finding in progressing shock.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Ceftriaxone IM is the recommended treatment for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection during pregnancy. Untreated gonorrhea increases the risk of chorioamnionitis, preterm labor, premature rupture of membranes, and neonatal complications such as ophthalmia neonatorum. Ceftriaxone is safe in pregnancy and effective against gonorrhea. Prompt treatment prevents maternal complications and vertical transmission to the neonate. Therefore, administration of ceftriaxone IM is the correct nursing action in this case.
Choice B rationale: A blood culture is not indicated for a localized gonorrhea infection. Blood cultures are obtained when systemic infection or sepsis is suspected, which is not the case here. The client is asymptomatic aside from the positive culture result, with no fever, chills, or systemic signs of bacteremia. Therefore, obtaining a blood culture would not be an appropriate or necessary intervention in this scenario.
Choice C rationale: The rubella vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy because of the potential teratogenic effects on the fetus. Women who are non-immune to rubella, as indicated by a titer less than 1:8, should be vaccinated postpartum before discharge to prevent infection in future pregnancies. Administering the vaccine during pregnancy is unsafe and therefore not an appropriate action at this time.
Choice D rationale: Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is typically performed between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation to assess for neural tube defects and chromosomal abnormalities. At 12 weeks, it is too early to obtain this specimen, and the result would not be reliable. Therefore, ordering MSAFP at this gestational age is inappropriate. The correct timing should be discussed and scheduled for later in the pregnancy.
Correct Answer is ["0.25"]
Explanation
Step 1 is: Determine the number of tablets by dividing the prescribed dose by the available dose per tablet. (50 mcg÷ 200 mcg/tablet) = 0.25 tablet. The final calculated answer is 0.25 tablet.
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