A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following a lobectomy and has a chest tube drainage system in place. Which of the following findings by the nurse indicates a need for intervention?
Development of subcutaneous emphysema
Chest tube eyelets not visible
Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
Presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is: a. Development of subcutaneous emphysema
Choice A: Development of subcutaneous emphysema
Reason: Subcutaneous emphysema occurs when air gets trapped under the skin, often due to a leak from the lung or chest tube. This can indicate a serious complication such as a pneumothorax or a malfunctioning chest tube, requiring immediate medical intervention. The presence of subcutaneous emphysema can lead to discomfort, respiratory distress, and further complications if not addressed promptly.
Choice B: Chest tube eyelets not visible
Reason: The eyelets of a chest tube are small holes at the end of the tube that allow air and fluid to drain from the pleural space. These eyelets are typically covered by a dressing and may not be visible. This is not necessarily a cause for concern unless there are other signs of malfunction or complications.
Choice C: Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
Reason: Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected and indicates that the suction is functioning properly. It does not indicate a problem unless the bubbling is in the water seal chamber, which would suggest an air leak.
Choice D: Presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber
Reason: Tidal fluctuation, or tidaling, in the water seal chamber is a normal finding. It indicates that the chest tube is patent and functioning correctly, as the water level rises with inhalation and falls with exhalation. The absence of tidaling could indicate a blockage or that the lung has fully re-expanded.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Encourage the use of wide grip utensils. This action is not related to homonymous hemianopsia, but to the motor weakness or paralysis that may occur on the opposite side of the body after a stroke. Wide grip utensils can help the client hold and use them more easily.
Choice B reason: Remind the client to look for food on the left side of the tray. This action is appropriate because homonymous hemianopsia is a visual field loss on the same side of both eyes. A client who had a right sided stroke will have difficulty seeing the left side of their visual field. Reminding the client to look for food on the left side of the tray will help them eat more completely and prevent malnutrition.
Choice C reason: Provide a nonskid mat to alleviate plate movement. This action is not related to homonymous hemianopsia, but to the safety and stability of the client's eating environment. A nonskid mat can prevent the plate from sliding or falling off the tray.
Choice D reason: Encourage the client to use his right hand when feeding himself. This action is not related to homonymous hemianopsia, but to the motor weakness or paralysis that may occur on the opposite side of the body after a stroke. Encouraging the client to use his right hand can help him maintain his independence and function.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Ask the client to read a Snellen chart. This method is used to assess cranial nerve II, which is the optic nerve. The optic nerve is responsible for vision and visual acuity. A Snellen chart is a tool that displays letters of different sizes and measures how well the client can see them from a distance of 20 feet.
Choice B reason: Ask the client to clench his teeth. This method is not used to assess cranial nerve II, but cranial nerve V, which is the trigeminal nerve. The trigeminal nerve is responsible for sensation and motor function of the face, mouth, and jaw. Clenching the teeth tests the strength and symmetry of the masseter and temporalis muscles, which are innervated by the trigeminal nerve.
Choice C reason: Listen to the client’s speech. This method is not used to assess cranial nerve II, but cranial nerves IX, X, and XII, which are the glossopharyngeal, vagus, and hypoglossal nerves. These nerves are responsible for speech production and swallowing. Listening to the client’s speech tests the quality, clarity, and articulation of the voice, as well as the movement and coordination of the tongue and palate.
Choice D reason: Ask the client to identify scented aromas. This method is not used to assess cranial nerve II, but cranial nerve I, which is the olfactory nerve. The olfactory nerve is responsible for smell and olfaction. Asking the client to identify scented aromas tests the ability to detect and recognize different odors.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today