A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following a lobectomy and has a chest tube drainage system in place. Which of the following findings by the nurse indicates a need for intervention?
Development of subcutaneous emphysema
Chest tube eyelets not visible
Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
Presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is: a. Development of subcutaneous emphysema
Choice A: Development of subcutaneous emphysema
Reason: Subcutaneous emphysema occurs when air gets trapped under the skin, often due to a leak from the lung or chest tube. This can indicate a serious complication such as a pneumothorax or a malfunctioning chest tube, requiring immediate medical intervention. The presence of subcutaneous emphysema can lead to discomfort, respiratory distress, and further complications if not addressed promptly.
Choice B: Chest tube eyelets not visible
Reason: The eyelets of a chest tube are small holes at the end of the tube that allow air and fluid to drain from the pleural space. These eyelets are typically covered by a dressing and may not be visible. This is not necessarily a cause for concern unless there are other signs of malfunction or complications.
Choice C: Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
Reason: Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected and indicates that the suction is functioning properly. It does not indicate a problem unless the bubbling is in the water seal chamber, which would suggest an air leak.
Choice D: Presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber
Reason: Tidal fluctuation, or tidaling, in the water seal chamber is a normal finding. It indicates that the chest tube is patent and functioning correctly, as the water level rises with inhalation and falls with exhalation. The absence of tidaling could indicate a blockage or that the lung has fully re-expanded.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Blood glucose levels are not a necessary laboratory test for a client who has tuberculosis and new prescriptions for rifampin and pyrazinamide. Blood glucose levels measure the amount of sugar in the blood and are used to diagnose and monitor diabetes. Rifampin and pyrazinamide do not affect blood glucose levels directly, but they may interact with some medications used to treat diabetes, such as sulfonylureas or metformin. The nurse should advise the client to monitor their blood glucose levels regularly and report any changes to the provider.
Choice B reason: Thyroid function studies are not a required laboratory test for a client who has tuberculosis and new prescriptions for rifampin and pyrazinamide. Thyroid function studies measure the levels of thyroid hormones and thyroid stimulating hormone in the blood and are used to diagnose and monitor thyroid disorders. Rifampin and pyrazinamide do not affect thyroid function directly, but they may interact with some medications used to treat thyroid disorders, such as levothyroxine or propylthiouracil. The nurse should advise the client to take their thyroid medication at least 4 hours before or after rifampin and pyrazinamide and report any symptoms of thyroid imbalance to the provider.
Choice C reason: Gallbladder studies are not a relevant laboratory test for a client who has tuberculosis and new prescriptions for rifampin and pyrazinamide. Gallbladder studies include ultrasound, computed tomography (CT), or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scans of the gallbladder and are used to diagnose and monitor gallstones or gallbladder inflammation. Rifampin and pyrazinamide do not affect the gallbladder directly, but they may cause side effects such as nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain, which can mimic gallbladder problems. The nurse should assess the client for signs of hepatotoxicity, such as jaundice, dark urine, or clay colored stools, and report any findings to the provider.
Choice D reason: Liver function tests are a vital laboratory test for a client who has tuberculosis and new prescriptions for rifampin and pyrazinamide. Liver function tests measure the levels of enzymes, proteins, and bilirubin in the blood and are used to diagnose and monitor liver damage or disease. Rifampin and pyrazinamide are both hepatotoxic drugs, which means they can cause liver injury or failure. The nurse should instruct the client to have liver function tests done before starting the medication regimen and periodically during the treatment. The nurse should also educate the client about the signs and symptoms of hepatotoxicity, such as fatigue, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, or yellowing of the skin or eyes, and advise them to stop taking the medication and seek medical attention if they occur.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Eliciting the gag reflex is not a valid way to assess cranial nerve III. The gag reflex is a protective mechanism that prevents choking or aspiration by triggering a contraction of the pharyngeal muscles when the back of the throat is stimulated. The gag reflex is mediated by cranial nerves IX and X, not III.
Choice B reason: Checking the pupillary response to light is a reliable way to assess cranial nerve III. The pupillary response to light is a reflex that causes the pupil to constrict when exposed to bright light and dilate when exposed to dim light. This reflex helps to regulate the amount of light that enters the eye and protects the retina from damage. The pupillary response to light is controlled by cranial nerve III, which innervates the sphincter pupillae muscle that constricts the pupil.
Choice C reason: Observing for facial symmetry is not a relevant way to assess cranial nerve III. Facial symmetry is the degree of similarity between the two halves of the face. Facial symmetry can be affected by various factors, such as genetics, aging, or facial nerve palsy. Facial nerve palsy is a condition that causes weakness or paralysis of the muscles that control facial expression. Facial nerve palsy is caused by damage to cranial nerve VII, not III.
Choice D reason: Testing visual acuity is not a sufficient way to assess cranial nerve III. Visual acuity is the ability to see fine details and distinguish objects at a distance. Visual acuity depends on various factors, such as the clarity of the lens and cornea, the shape of the eyeball, and the function of the retina. Visual acuity is mainly affected by cranial nerve II, which carries visual information from the retina to the brain. Cranial nerve III does not directly influence visual acuity, but it does innervate some of the muscles that move the eye and enable binocular vision.
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