A nurse is assessing a client newly diagnosed with early-onset osteoarthritis. Which manifestation should the nurse expect?

Ulnar deviation.

Symmetric joints are affected.

Weight loss.

Joint stiffness and limited range of motion.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason:

Ulnar deviation, which is the angling of the fingers towards the little finger side of the hand, is more commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis, not osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis typically affects the joint's cartilage, leading to pain and stiffness, rather than causing the fingers to deviate.

Choice B reason:

Symmetric joint involvement is also more characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis. Osteoarthritis usually affects joints asymmetrically, meaning it's more likely to affect one side of the body or one particular joint at a time.

Choice C reason:

Weight loss is not a direct manifestation of osteoarthritis. In fact, being overweight is a risk factor for developing osteoarthritis due to the increased stress on weight-bearing joints. However, weight management through diet and exercise can be part of the treatment plan for osteoarthritis to alleviate symptoms and improve joint function.

Choice D reason:

Joint stiffness and limited range of motion are hallmark manifestations of osteoarthritis. These symptoms result from the breakdown of cartilage within the joints, which leads to pain and difficulty moving the affected joint. Stiffness is often most noticeable upon waking or after periods of inactivity, and the range of motion may decrease as the condition progresses.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice a reason:
An increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function or the effect of medications, but it is not a direct indicator of reduced cardiac workload. Atenolol, a beta-blocker, primarily reduces the heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand, not urine output.

Choice b reason:
Less dyspnea with activity suggests improved cardiovascular efficiency, but it is not a specific measure of cardiac workload. Dyspnea can be influenced by respiratory conditions and is not solely determined by cardiac function.

Choice c reason:
A blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg is considered optimal for most adults and indicates good control of hypertension. However, it does not specifically reflect the cardiac workload, which is more directly affected by heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand.

Choice d reason:
A heart rate of 65 per minute is a clear indicator that atenolol is effective in reducing cardiac workload. Atenolol decreases the heart rate, which in turn reduces myocardial oxygen demand and the overall workload on the heart. This is particularly important for patients with unstable angina, where reducing the heart's workload can prevent angina attacks and potential myocardial infarction.

A. Urine negative for ketones. B. Sodium 135 mg/dL and Potassium 3.5 mEq/L. C. BUN 34 mg/dL and Creatinine 4.2 mg/dL. D. White blood cell count 12,000/mm³.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason
Urine negative for ketones is a normal finding and does not typically indicate an acute problem. Ketones in the urine can be a sign of uncontrolled diabetes or starvation, but their absence is expected in a well-nourished individual who is not in a state of diabetic ketoacidosis.

Choice B Reason
Sodium at 135 mg/dL and Potassium at 3.5 mEq/L are within normal ranges. The normal range for serum sodium is approximately 135-145 mEq/L, and for serum potassium, it is around 3.5-5.0 mEq/L. These values do not indicate an immediate concern for the patient with urosepsis.

Choice C Reason
A BUN of 34 mg/dL and Creatinine of 4.2 mg/dL are concerning. The normal range for BUN is approximately 6-20 mg/dL, and for Creatinine, it is about 0.6-1.2 mg/dL for males and 0.5-1.1 mg/dL for females. Elevated levels of BUN and Creatinine indicate impaired kidney function, which can be a complication of urosepsis and the nephrotoxic effects of gentamicin and vancomycin.

Choice D Reason
A white blood cell count of 12,000/mm³ is slightly elevated, which may be expected in a patient with an infection such as urosepsis. The normal range is approximately 4,500-11,000 WBCs/mm³. While this should be monitored, it does not require immediate reporting unless there is a significant change or it is outside the patient's baseline.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A nurse is assessing a client newly diagnosed with early-onset osteoarthritis. Which manifestation should the nurse expect?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse identifies that the goal of decreasing the cardiac workload for a client receiving atenolol 25 mg PO BID for unstable angina is met when the client has:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client is receiving gentamicin and vancomycin IV for urosepsis. Which diagnostic study result should the nurse report to the primary care practitioner?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The edited text with the question and the choices labeled from a to d is as follows: The nurse who assesses a client as having paranoid personality disorder is most likely to describe the client as:

What instruction for oral administration of methotrexate should the nurse include when teaching a client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis?

The nurse's teaching plan for a client taking lithium should include instructions to:

After examining and treating a client who has been raped, discharge instructions from the emergency department (ED) would include which of the following?

A client is prescribed alprazolam for acute anxiety. What client history should cause a nurse to question this order?

Which nursing action(s) should the nurse include in the post-op plan of care for a client recovering from a below-the-knee amputation?

When teaching a client about cystitis, the nurse explains that women are more prone to the infection than men. Which of the following best explains a woman's increased susceptibility?

The nurse is preparing to hang the client's next bag of Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) and observes fat globules rising to the top of the solution. What action should the nurse take?