A nurse is assessing a client after administering phenytoin IV bolus for a seizure. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?
Red man syndrome
Hypotension
Hypoglycemia
Bradycardia
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Red man syndrome is typically associated with the rapid infusion of vancomycin, not phenytoin.
Choice B rationale:
Hypotension can be an adverse effect of phenytoin administration, especially if the medication is administered rapidly.
Choice C rationale:
Hypoglycemia is not commonly associated with phenytoin use.
Choice D rationale:
Bradycardia is not commonly associated with phenytoin use.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Obtaining the client's HDL level is not relevant to the administration error.
Choice B rationale:
Collecting the client's uric acid level is not relevant to the administration error.
Choice C rationale:
Metformin is an antidiabetic medication used to control blood glucose levels. Since metformin was administered instead of metoprolol, the nurse should check the client's glucose level to monitor for potential effects of the incorrect medication.
Choice D rationale:
Monitoring the client's thyroid function levels is not relevant to the administration error involving metformin and metoprolol.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone, but rather an adverse effect of morphine. Naloxone would reduce the analgesic effect of morphine and increase the pain sensation in the client.
Choice B rationale:
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioids, such as morphine, on the central nervous system. One of the main adverse effects of opioids is respiratory depression, which can lead to hypoxia and death. Naloxone restores normal breathing by blocking the opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord. Therefore, a therapeutic effect of naloxone is increased respiratory rate.
Choice C rationale:
Decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone, but rather a possible side effect of morphine. Naloxone would not affect the blood pressure significantly, unless the client had severe hypotension due to opioid overdose.
Choice D rationale:
Decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone, but rather a possible side effect of morphine. Naloxone would not affect the gastrointestinal system, unless the client had severe nausea and vomiting due to opioid overdose.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.