A nurse is assessing a client after administering phenytoin IV bolus for a seizure. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?
Red man syndrome
Hypotension
Hypoglycemia
Bradycardia
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Red man syndrome is associated with vancomycin, not phenytoin.
Choice B rationale:
Hypotension, or low blood pressure, can be an adverse effect of phenytoin.
Choice C rationale:
Hypoglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of phenytoin.
Choice D rationale:
Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
An INR of 1.6 is slightly elevated but does not necessarily warrant an incident report.
Choice B rationale:
A WBC count of 6,000/mm3 is within a normal range and would not warrant an incident report.
Choice C rationale:
A hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL is within a normal range and does not warrant an incident report.
Choice D rationale:
An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly prolonged and may indicate excessive anticoagulation from the heparin administration. This could potentially be a safety concern and would warrant an incident report for further evaluation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A hematocrit (Hct) level of 44% is within the normal range for adults.
Choice B rationale:
A white blood cell (WBC) count of 5,000/mm3 falls within the normal range.
Choice C rationale:
Total bilirubin levels greater than 1.2 mg/dL in adults could indicate liver dysfunction and should be reported to the provider when assessing a client on amitriptyline, which can affect liver function.
Choice D rationale:
A potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L falls within the normal range for potassium levels.
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