A nurse is assessing a 2-year-old toddler. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Natural loss of deciduous teeth

Nontender, protruding abdomen

Palpable fontanels

Head circumference exceeds chest circumference

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A.   Incorrect. The natural loss of deciduous (baby) teeth typically begins around 6 years of age, not at 2 years old.
B.   Correct. Toddlers often have a nontender, protruding abdomen due to their underdeveloped abdominal muscles.
C.   Incorrect. The fontanels (soft spots on the baby's head) should be closed by 18-24 months of age. Palpable fontanels at 2 years old could indicate abnormal cranial development.
D.   Incorrect. It is not typical for a 2-year-old's head circumference to exceed their chest circumference. Head circumference is usually greater in infants but gradually becomes similar to chest circumference by 1-2 years of age.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice B rationale:

Flumazenil is a selective antagonist for the benzodiazepine receptor and is used as an antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity. It competitively inhibits the effects of benzodiazepines by binding to the same receptor sites in the central nervous system. Flumazenil can rapidly reverse the sedative and respiratory-depressant effects of benzodiazepine overdose, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario.

Choice A rationale:

Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that is used to treat bradycardia and certain types of heart block. It has no specific antidote effects for benzodiazepine toxicity and would not be the appropriate choice in this situation.

Choice C rationale:

Activated charcoal is used in the management of certain types of poisonings by adsorbing the toxic substance in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing its absorption into the bloodstream. However, it is not effective for benzodiazepine toxicity, which primarily affects the central nervous system and not the gastrointestinal tract.

Choice D rationale:

Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose. It has no specific effects on benzodiazepine toxicity and would not be the appropriate choice in this case.

A. Remove the client's restraint every 4 hr. B. Attach the restraint to the bed's side rails. C. Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive. D. Document the client's condition every 15 min.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Incorrect. Restraints should be removed and repositioned, and the client's needs assessed at a frequency that follows institutional policies, which might not always be every 4 hours.

B. Incorrect. Restraints should be attached to the bed frame, not the side rails, to minimize the risk of injury.

C. Incorrect. PRN (as needed) restraint prescriptions should be avoided. Restraints should only be used based on specific criteria and under the guidance of a healthcare provider.

D. Correct. When using restraints, it's important to document the client's condition frequently to assess for any potential adverse effects or discomfort.

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A nurse is assessing a 2-year-old toddler. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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