A nurse is reviewing a client's cardiac rhythm strips and notes a constant P-R interval of
0.35 seconds. Which of the following dysrhythmias is the client displaying?
Premature atrial complexes
Complete heart block
Atrial fibrillation
First-degree atrioventricular block
The Correct Answer is D
A. Incorrect. Premature atrial complexes do not typically affect the P-R interval. They are characterized by an early P-wave followed by a QRS complex.
B. Incorrect. Complete heart block is characterized by a dissociation between the P-waves and QRS complexes, resulting in no relationship between atrial and ventricular activity.
C. Incorrect. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by chaotic and irregular atrial activity without distinct P-waves, making the P-R interval irrelevant.
D. Correct. In first-degree atrioventricular block, the P-R interval is prolonged beyond the normal range of 0.12-0.20 seconds. A constant P-R interval of 0.35 seconds indicates a first- degree atrioventricular block.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","E"]
Explanation
A. Placenta previa: The client's symptoms do not specifically suggest placenta previa, which is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding, not back pain.
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation: The client's symptoms and vital signs do not suggest disseminated intravascular coagulation, which is a serious condition characterized by excessive bleeding and clotting throughout the body.
C. Preeclampsia: The presence of uterine contractions, elevated blood pressure, and a potential increase in body temperature can indicate the risk of developing preeclampsia, a condition characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to other organ systems, often developing after the 20th week of pregnancy.
D. Sepsis: While the client has an elevated temperature, the symptoms provided do not strongly indicate sepsis. Other signs, such as rapid heart rate, low blood pressure, and changes in mental status, are usually associated with sepsis.
E. Preterm prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM): The client's report of lower back pain, pinkish vaginal discharge, and uterine contractions can raise concern for the risk of preterm prelabour rupture of membranes, where the amniotic sac ruptures before the onset of labor.
F. Seizures: The client's symptoms and information provided do not indicate a risk of seizures. Seizures can be associated with conditions like preeclampsia but are not directly indicated by the client's current assessment.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice C rationale:
Recommending scrambled eggs is appropriate for a client with dysphagia caused by a stroke. Scrambled eggs have a soft and moist texture, making them easier to swallow for individuals with difficulty swallowing. It is crucial to choose foods that are easy to chew and swallow, as well as foods that can be easily moistened with sauces or gravies to aid in swallowing.
Choice A rationale:
Crispy rice bars are dry and hard, posing a significant risk for individuals with dysphagia. Foods that are dry, crunchy, or crumbly can be difficult to swallow and may lead to choking, especially for individuals with impaired swallowing abilities. Therefore, crispy rice bars are not a suitable choice for a client with dysphagia.
Choice B rationale:
Peanut butter, especially when consumed without added moisture or in large amounts, can be thick and sticky, making it challenging to swallow, especially for individuals with dysphagia. It can adhere to the walls of the throat, causing discomfort and difficulty in swallowing. While peanut butter can be a good source of protein, it is not an ideal choice for someone with swallowing difficulties.
Choice D rationale:
Soda crackers are dry and can be crumbly, making them a poor
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