A nurse is reviewing a client's cardiac rhythm strips and notes a constant P-R interval of
0.35 seconds. Which of the following dysrhythmias is the client displaying?

Premature atrial complexes

Complete heart block

Atrial fibrillation

First-degree atrioventricular block

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   Incorrect. Premature atrial complexes do not typically affect the P-R interval. They are characterized by an early P-wave followed by a QRS complex.
B.   Incorrect. Complete heart block is characterized by a dissociation between the P-waves and QRS complexes, resulting in no relationship between atrial and ventricular activity.
C.   Incorrect. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by chaotic and irregular atrial activity without distinct P-waves, making the P-R interval irrelevant.
D.   Correct. In first-degree atrioventricular block, the P-R interval is prolonged beyond the normal range of 0.12-0.20 seconds. A constant P-R interval of 0.35 seconds indicates a first- degree atrioventricular block.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice B rationale:

Flumazenil is a selective antagonist for the benzodiazepine receptor and is used as an antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity. It competitively inhibits the effects of benzodiazepines by binding to the same receptor sites in the central nervous system. Flumazenil can rapidly reverse the sedative and respiratory-depressant effects of benzodiazepine overdose, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario.

Choice A rationale:

Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that is used to treat bradycardia and certain types of heart block. It has no specific antidote effects for benzodiazepine toxicity and would not be the appropriate choice in this situation.

Choice C rationale:

Activated charcoal is used in the management of certain types of poisonings by adsorbing the toxic substance in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing its absorption into the bloodstream. However, it is not effective for benzodiazepine toxicity, which primarily affects the central nervous system and not the gastrointestinal tract.

Choice D rationale:

Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose. It has no specific effects on benzodiazepine toxicity and would not be the appropriate choice in this case.

A. Administer a cathartic suppository 30 min prior to scheduled defecation times. B. Encourage a maximum fluid intake of 1,500 mL per day. C. Increase the amount of refined grains in the client's diet. D. Provide the client with a cold drink prior to defecation.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Correct. Administering a cathartic suppository can help stimulate bowel movement and facilitate a bowel-training program, particularly for individuals with altered bowel function due to spinal cord injury.

B. Incorrect. Adequate fluid intake is important, but limiting fluid intake is not typically recommended for clients with spinal cord injuries.

C. Incorrect. Refined grains are not specifically indicated for promoting bowel function. A balanced diet with sufficient fiber is more appropriate.

D. Incorrect. Providing a cold drink prior to defecation might not have a significant impact on bowel function and is not a commonly recommended intervention.

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A nurse is reviewing a client's cardiac rhythm strips and notes a constant P-R interval of 0.35 seconds. Which of the following dysrhythmias is the client displaying?

Nursing Test Bank

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A nurse is reviewing a client's cardiac rhythm strips and notes a constant P-R interval of
0.35 seconds. Which of the following dysrhythmias is the client displaying?