A nurse is admitting a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and diagnosed with severe gestational hypertension. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect to implement? (Select all that apply.)
Evaluate neurologic status every 8 hr.
Provide a dark, quiet environment.
Administer magnesium sulfate IV.
Ensure that calcium gluconate is readily available.
Assess respiratory status every 4 hr.
Correct Answer : B,C,D
Explanation:
A. Evaluate neurologic status every 8 hr.
While monitoring neurologic status is important in clients with severe gestational hypertension to assess for signs of impending eclampsia (seizures), more frequent monitoring is typically required, such as every 4 hours or even more frequently depending on the severity of the condition. Therefore, evaluating neurologic status every 8 hours is not sufficient for this client.
B. Provide a dark, quiet environment.
Creating a calm and low-stimulation environment helps to reduce the risk of seizures, which can be triggered by bright lights and loud noises in clients with severe gestational hypertension.
C. Administer magnesium sulfate IV.
Magnesium sulfate is commonly used to prevent seizures in clients with severe gestational hypertension (preeclampsia). It is a standard treatment to prevent eclampsia, a serious complication of preeclampsia characterized by seizures. Therefore, the nurse should expect to administer magnesium sulfate IV as part of the management plan for severe gestational hypertension.
D. Ensure that calcium gluconate is readily available.
Magnesium sulfate, while effective in preventing seizures, can lead to magnesium toxicity if levels become too high. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should ensure that calcium gluconate is readily available to counteract any potential magnesium toxicity that may occur during magnesium sulfate administration.
E. Assess respiratory status every 4 hr.
Monitor and record vital signs (blood pressure, pulse, respirations, O2 saturation) every 1 hour x’s 8 hours after maintenance infusion is started and vital signs for bolus infusion are complete. If respiratory rate < 12 breaths/min, draw magnesium level, notify HCP, and observe closely.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Explanation:
A. "Don't worry. You will be fine once the baby is born."
This response may inadvertently dismiss the client's feelings of doubt and uncertainty. It assumes that the client's concerns will automatically resolve after childbirth, which may not be the case for everyone. It lacks acknowledgment of the client's current emotional state and does not offer meaningful support or guidance.
B. "Ambivalent feelings are quite common for women early in pregnancy."
This response acknowledges the client's feelings of doubt and uncertainty as valid and common experiences during early pregnancy. It normalizes her emotions, letting her know that she is not alone in feeling this way. By providing this validation, the nurse creates a supportive environment where the client can feel understood and accepted.
C. "Perhaps you should see a counselor to discuss these feelings further."
Suggesting counseling is a proactive and supportive approach. It recognizes that the client's emotions are complex and may benefit from professional guidance. Counseling offers a safe space for the client to explore her feelings, understand their root causes, and develop coping strategies. It demonstrates the nurse's commitment to the client's emotional well-being and encourages seeking help when needed.
D. "Have you spoken to your mother about these feelings?"
While seeking support from family members can be valuable, this response may not fully address the client's emotional needs. It assumes that talking to her mother will automatically resolve her concerns, which may not always be the case. Additionally, some clients may prefer discussing sensitive issues with a neutral third party or a trained counselor who can offer unbiased support and guidance.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Explanation:
A. Excessive uterine enlargement
This choice is correct because a hydatidiform mole can cause rapid and excessive growth of the uterus due to the abnormal proliferation of placental tissue. This can lead to the uterus being larger than expected for the gestational age.

B. Profuse, clear vaginal discharge
This choice is not typically associated with a hydatidiform mole. While vaginal discharge can occur during pregnancy, a profuse and clear discharge is not specifically characteristic of a hydatidiform mole. Other causes, such as normal vaginal secretions or infections, could lead to such discharge.
C. Rapid decline in human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels
This choice is not typical of a hydatidiform mole. In fact, one of the hallmarks of a molar pregnancy is an abnormally high level of hCG. The hCG levels may continue to rise instead of declining rapidly.
D. Irregular fetal heart rate
This choice is not associated with a hydatidiform mole because a molar pregnancy does not involve a viable fetus with a heartbeat. Instead, it is characterized by the abnormal growth of placental tissue, which can cause symptoms related to uterine enlargement and complications such as bleeding or preeclampsia, but not an irregular fetal heart rate.
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