A nurse is administering magnesium sulfate IV to a client who has severe preeclampsia.
Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform to monitor for magnesium toxicity? Select all that apply.
Deep tendon reflexes
Respiratory rate
Urine output
Fetal heart rate
Serum magnesium level
Correct Answer : A,B,C,E
The correct answer is choice A, B, C and E. The nurse should monitor for magnesium toxicity by assessing the deep tendon reflexes, respiratory rate, urine output and serum magnesium level of the client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate IV. Magnesium toxicity can cause life-threatening complications such as hypotension, areflexia (loss of DTRs), respiratory depression, respiratory arrest, oliguria, shortness of breath, chest pains, slurred speech and cardiac arrest. The nurse should also have calcium chloride ready as an antidote for magnesium toxicity.
Choice D is wrong because fetal heart rate is not a direct indicator of magnesium toxicity. However, the nurse should still monitor the fetal heart rate and uterine activity per the Electronic Fetal Monitoring (EFM) Guideline.
Normal ranges for the assessments are:
• Deep tendon reflexes: 1+ to 4+ (normal to hyperactive)
• Respiratory rate: 12 to 20 breaths per minute
• Urine output: at least 30 mL per hour
• Serum magnesium level: 4 to 7 mg/dL (therapeutic range for preeclampsia)
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion.
The client is showing signs of magnesium toxicity, such as absent deep tendon reflexes, which can lead to respiratory depression and cardiac arrest.
Magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant that is used to prevent seizures in eclampsia, but it can also cause vasodilation and hypotension.
The nurse should stop the infusion and monitor the client’s vital signs and neurological status.
Choice B. Increase the rate of the hydralazine infusion is wrong because hydralazine is an antihypertensive that lowers blood pressure.
The client’s blood pressure is already within the normal range for eclampsia (140/90 to 160/110 mmHg), so increasing the rate of hydralazine could cause hypotension and compromise placental perfusion.
Choice C. Administer calcium gluconate IV push is wrong because calcium gluconate is an antidote for magnesium toxicity, but it should not be given IV push.
It should be given slowly over 10 to 20 minutes to avoid cardiac arrhythmias and bradycardia.
Choice D. Prepare for immediate delivery of the fetus is wrong because delivery of the fetus is not indicated at this time.
The client’s vital signs are stable and there is no evidence of fetal distress or placental abruption.
Delivery of the fetus is the definitive treatment for eclampsia, but it should be done when the maternal and fetal conditions are optimal.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The client should have a follow-up visit with the provider in a week.This is because preeclampsia can persist or develop after delivery and requires close monitoring of blood pressure and signs of organ injury.
Choice A is wrong because vaginal bleeding is normal after delivery and does not indicate a complication of preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because the client should not stop taking blood pressure medication without consulting the provider.Preeclampsia can cause hypertension that may need treatment even after delivery.
Choice C is wrong because breastfeeding is not contraindicated for women with preeclampsia.Breastfeeding may even lower blood pressure and help the uterus contract.
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