A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who sustained a head injury. The nurse notes the client's IV fluids are infusing at 125 mL/hr. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
Slow the rate to 50 mL/hr.
Slow the rate to 20 mL/hr.
Continue the rate at 125 mL/hr.
Increase the rate to 250 mL/hr.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is: C. Continue the rate at 125 mL/hr.
Choice A: Slow the rate to 50 mL/hr
Slowing the IV fluid rate to 50 mL/hr is not appropriate for a patient with a head injury. Adequate fluid management is crucial to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure and prevent secondary brain injury. Reducing the rate to 50 mL/hr could lead to hypovolemia, which might decrease cerebral perfusion and worsen the patient’s condition.
Choice B: Slow the rate to 20 mL/hr
Slowing the IV fluid rate to 20 mL/hr is even less appropriate. Such a low rate would likely result in significant hypovolemia, severely compromising cerebral perfusion pressure. This could exacerbate the patient’s head injury by reducing the blood flow to the brain, leading to further damage.
Choice C: Continue the rate at 125 mL/hr
Continuing the rate at 125 mL/hr is appropriate. This rate helps maintain euvolemia, which is essential for ensuring adequate cerebral perfusion pressure in patients with head injuries. Maintaining a stable fluid rate helps prevent both hypovolemia and hypervolemia, both of which can negatively impact intracranial pressure and cerebral perfusion.
Choice D: Increase the rate to 250 mL/hr
Increasing the IV fluid rate to 250 mL/hr is not recommended. Overhydration can lead to increased intracranial pressure, which can be detrimental to a patient with a head injury. Excessive fluid administration can cause cerebral edema, worsening the patient’s condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is: A. Elective cardioversion
Choice A reason:
Elective cardioversion is a medical procedure that is used to restore a normal heart rhythm in patients experiencing certain types of arrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia (VT), when they are stable. It involves the delivery of a controlled electric shock to the heart, which is synchronized with the heart's electrical activity to convert the abnormal rhythm back to a normal sinus rhythm. This procedure is typically performed when VT is not causing hemodynamic instability and the patient is not in immediate danger.
Choice B reason:
Defibrillation is an emergency treatment for life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias, particularly ventricular fibrillation (VF) or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. It involves delivering a high-energy electric shock to the heart unsynchronized to the heart's electrical cycle, aiming to reset the heart's electrical state and allow it to reestablish an effective rhythm. In the scenario provided, where the patient is experiencing VT but not VF, defibrillation would not be the first line of action unless the VT deteriorates into VF or the patient becomes pulseless.
Choice C reason:
CPR, or cardiopulmonary resuscitation, is a lifesaving technique useful in many emergencies, including heart attack or near drowning, in which someone's breathing or heartbeat has stopped. In the case of VT, if the patient is conscious and has a pulse, CPR is not indicated. CPR would only be necessary if the patient's heart stops beating (cardiac arrest) as a result of the VT.
Choice D reason:
Radiofrequency catheter ablation is a procedure used to treat some types of arrhythmias, including VT, by destroying the area of heart tissue that is causing the abnormal heart rhythm. This treatment is generally considered when medication is ineffective or not tolerated, or in recurrent VT. It is not typically the first line of treatment in an acute setting where the patient is stable and experiencing VT.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: Ask the client to shrug his shoulders against passive resistance is not an assessment that will give the nurse information about the function of cranial nerve III. This assessment will test the function of cranial nerve XI, which is the accessory nerve. The accessory nerve innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles, which are involved in shoulder and neck movements.
Choice B: Instruct the client to look up and down without moving his head is an assessment that will give the nurse information about the function of cranial nerve III. Cranial nerve III is the oculomotor nerve, which innervates four of the six extraocular muscles that control eye movements. The oculomotor nerve also controls pupil size and lens shape. By instructing the client to look up and down without moving his head, the nurse can assess the ability of the oculomotor nerve to move the eyes vertically and adjust to different distances.
Choice C: Observe the client's ability to smile and frown is not an assessment that will give the nurse information about the function of cranial nerve III. This assessment will test the function of cranial nerve VII, which is the facial nerve. The facial nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression, which are involved in smiling, frowning, blinking, and other facial movements.
Choice D: Have the client stand with his eyes closed and touch his nose is not an assessment that will give the nurse information about the function of cranial nerve III. This assessment will test the function of cranial nerve VIII, which is the vestibulocochlear nerve. The vestibulocochlear nerve innervates the inner ear and is responsible for hearing and balance. By having the client stand with his eyes closed and touch his nose, the nurse can assess the ability of the vestibulocochlear nerve to maintain equilibrium and coordination.
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