A nurse is planning a staff education session regarding biological weapons of mass destruction. Which of the following should he plan to include in the session? (Select all that apply.)
Smallpox
Hydrogen cyanide
Botulism
Anthrax
Sarin
Correct Answer : A,C,D
Choice A Reason: This is correct because smallpox is a highly contagious and deadly viral disease that can be used as a biological weapon. Smallpox was eradicated in 1980, but some samples of the virus are still stored in laboratories. If released intentionally, smallpox could cause a global pandemic.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because hydrogen cyanide is a chemical weapon of mass destruction, not a biological one. Hydrogen cyanide is a colorless gas that interferes with cellular respiration and causes rapid death.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because botulism is a serious and potentially fatal illness caused by a toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. Botulism can be used as a biological weapon by contaminating food or water supplies or by aerosolizing the toxin.
Choice D Reason: This is correct because anthrax is an infection caused by the spore-forming bacterium Bacillus anthracis. Anthrax can be used as a biological weapon by releasing the spores into the air or by contaminating food or water sources.
Choice E Reason: This is incorrect because sarin is a chemical weapon of mass destruction, not a biological one. Sarin is a nerve agent that blocks the transmission of nerve impulses and causes respiratory failure and death.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because the client's best motor response is 5, which means he can localize pain, not follow commands.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because the client's eye opening response is 3, which means he opens his eyes to pain, not to speech.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because the client's GCS score is 13, which indicates a severe impairment of consciousness. The GCS is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness of a person who has a head injury. The GCS score ranges from 3 to 15, with lower scores indicating lower levels of consciousness. A GCS score of 8 or less indicates coma. The client's GCS score is 3 + 5 + 5 = 13, which is above the coma threshold, but still indicates a severe impairment of consciousness. The other choices are not consistent with the client's GCS score.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because the client's best verbal response is 5, which means he can orient himself to person, place, and time, not that he is unable to make vocal sounds.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect. Widening pulse pressure is not a sign of hypovolemic shock, but rather of increased intracranial pressure or aortic regurgitation. Hypovolemic shock causes narrowing pulse pressure due to decreased stroke volume and increased peripheral resistance.
Choice B Reason: This is correct. Increased heart rate is a sign of hypovolemic shock, as the body tries to compensate for the decreased blood volume and cardiac output by increasing the heart rate and contractility.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect. Increased deep tendon reflexes are not a sign of hypovolemic shock, but rather of hyperreflexia or tetany. Hypovolemic shock causes decreased deep tendon reflexes due to reduced perfusion and oxygenation of the muscles and nerves.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect. Pulse oximetry 96% is not a sign of hypovolemic shock, but rather of normal oxygen saturation. Hypovolemic shock causes decreased pulse oximetry due to hypoxia and impaired gas exchange.
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