A nurse is planning a staff education session regarding biological weapons of mass destruction. Which of the following should he plan to include in the session? (Select all that apply.)
Smallpox
Hydrogen cyanide
Botulism
Anthrax
Sarin
Correct Answer : A,C,D
Choice A Reason: This is correct because smallpox is a highly contagious and deadly viral disease that can be used as a biological weapon. Smallpox was eradicated in 1980, but some samples of the virus are still stored in laboratories. If released intentionally, smallpox could cause a global pandemic.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because hydrogen cyanide is a chemical weapon of mass destruction, not a biological one. Hydrogen cyanide is a colorless gas that interferes with cellular respiration and causes rapid death.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because botulism is a serious and potentially fatal illness caused by a toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. Botulism can be used as a biological weapon by contaminating food or water supplies or by aerosolizing the toxin.
Choice D Reason: This is correct because anthrax is an infection caused by the spore-forming bacterium Bacillus anthracis. Anthrax can be used as a biological weapon by releasing the spores into the air or by contaminating food or water sources.
Choice E Reason: This is incorrect because sarin is a chemical weapon of mass destruction, not a biological one. Sarin is a nerve agent that blocks the transmission of nerve impulses and causes respiratory failure and death.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice a) is incorrect because elevating the client’s feet is not the priority action for a hypotensive client. Elevating the client’s feet may help increase the venous return to the heart, but it may also compromise the respiratory status of a client who has esophageal varices and is at risk of aspiration.
Choice b) is incorrect because administering a unit of packed RBCs is not the priority action for a hypotensive client. Administering a unit of packed RBCs may help increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, but it may also increase the blood viscosity and pressure, which can worsen the bleeding from the esophageal varices.
Choice c) is incorrect because initiating a dopamine IV infusion for the client is not the priority action for a hypotensive client. Initiating a dopamine IV infusion may help increase the blood pressure and cardiac output, but it may also cause vasoconstriction and tachycardia, which can increase the risk of hemorrhage and arrhythmias.
Choice d) is correct because increasing the client’s IV fluid rate is the priority action for a hypotensive client. Increasing the client’s IV fluid rate may help restore the intravascular volume and perfusion, which can prevent shock and organ damage. Increasing the client’s IV fluid rate may also dilute the blood and reduce its viscosity and pressure, which can decrease the bleeding from the esophageal varices.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because the client's best motor response is 5, which means he can localize pain, not follow commands.
Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because the client's eye opening response is 3, which means he opens his eyes to pain, not to speech.
Choice C Reason: This is correct because the client's GCS score is 13, which indicates a severe impairment of consciousness. The GCS is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness of a person who has a head injury. The GCS score ranges from 3 to 15, with lower scores indicating lower levels of consciousness. A GCS score of 8 or less indicates coma. The client's GCS score is 3 + 5 + 5 = 13, which is above the coma threshold, but still indicates a severe impairment of consciousness. The other choices are not consistent with the client's GCS score.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because the client's best verbal response is 5, which means he can orient himself to person, place, and time, not that he is unable to make vocal sounds.
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