A nurse in an outpatient clinic is assisting with the care of a client.
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.
The Correct Answer is []
Potential Condition:
- Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease characterized by progressive cartilage deterioration, leading to pain, stiffness, and crepitus in affected joints. The client’s symptoms of localized pain in the right knee and left wrist, along with crepitus, are hallmark features of osteoarthritis. The absence of systemic symptoms, such as fever or fatigue, further supports this diagnosis. Additionally, the client’s age and lack of widespread joint involvement are consistent with osteoarthritis rather than an inflammatory condition.
Actions to Take:
- Instruct the client to apply heat. Heat application helps relieve pain and stiffness in osteoarthritis by increasing blood flow, relaxing muscles, and reducing joint discomfort. This is particularly useful for chronic joint conditions where stiffness worsens with inactivity.
- Instruct the client to avoid foods high in purines. Although osteoarthritis itself is not directly related to uric acid levels, the client’s elevated uric acid suggests a risk for gouty arthritis. Avoiding purine-rich foods such as red meat, seafood, and alcohol can help prevent the development of gout, which could worsen joint symptoms.
Parameters to Monitor:
- Monitoring mobility is essential in osteoarthritis as it progressively worsens over time. Assessing range of motion, stiffness, and functional limitations helps guide treatment adjustments and determine whether additional interventions, such as physical therapy or assistive devices, are necessary.
- Uric acid level. The client’s uric acid level is elevated, which may indicate a predisposition to gout. Monitoring uric acid levels is important to prevent or identify early signs of gouty arthritis, which can coexist with osteoarthritis and cause episodic joint pain.
Rationale for Incorrect Options:
- Rheumatoid Arthritis is an autoimmune disorder that typically presents with symmetrical joint involvement, morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes, and systemic symptoms such as fatigue and weight loss. The client does not exhibit these features, and their negative antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) make rheumatoid arthritis unlikely.
- Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is a multisystem autoimmune disorder that can cause joint pain along with systemic symptoms such as facial rashes, kidney involvement, and hematologic abnormalities. The client does not have the characteristic malar rash, widespread joint pain, or other systemic findings. Furthermore, their ANA is negative, which significantly reduces the likelihood of SLE.
- Instruct the client to avoid large crowds is not appropriate because osteoarthritis is not an autoimmune or immunosuppressive condition. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis or lupus, osteoarthritis does not increase infection risk, so there is no need to avoid crowded places.
- Instruct the client to apply cold would not be the preferred intervention for osteoarthritis. Cold therapy is generally more effective for acute inflammation, whereas heat is better for chronic joint pain and stiffness.
- Lymphadenopathy is not a concern in osteoarthritis because it is a degenerative joint disease rather than an infectious or inflammatory condition. Swollen lymph nodes are more commonly seen in infections or autoimmune diseases like lupus.
- ANA does not need to be monitored for osteoarthritis, as it is primarily used to diagnose autoimmune conditions such as lupus. The client’s ANA is already negative, further confirming that autoimmune disease is unlikely.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Apply intermittent suction for 30 seconds. Suctioning should not exceed 10-15 seconds to minimize hypoxia and irritation to the airway. Continuous suctioning for 30 seconds can lead to discomfort and inadequate oxygenation.
B. Apply suction while inserting the catheter. Suction should not be applied while inserting the catheter. This technique can cause trauma to the mucosa and prevent effective suctioning. Suction should only be applied once the catheter is in the desired position.
C. Insert the catheter 10 cm (4 in). The appropriate insertion depth for nasopharyngeal suctioning is typically 12-15 cm (5-6 in) for adults. Inserting the catheter to the proper depth ensures effective suctioning of secretions while minimizing the risk of injury.
D. Wait 1 min between suctioning attempts. Waiting 1 minute between suctioning attempts is essential to allow for adequate oxygenation and to prevent trauma to the airway. This interval allows the client to recover and ensures the airway is not overly irritated or compromised.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Neck pain can occur in some patients following electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) due to muscle tension or positioning during the procedure. However, it is not a common or expected adverse reaction associated with ECT, so it is not the primary concern to address.
B. Temporary memory loss is a well-documented adverse reaction following ECT. Patients may experience difficulties with short-term memory, particularly related to events that occurred around the time of the treatment. This memory loss is usually temporary, but it can be distressing for some individuals.
C. Voice alteration is not typically associated with ECT. Although some patients may experience hoarseness or changes in vocal quality due to intubation or anesthesia, this is not a direct result of ECT itself and is not commonly mentioned in the context of ECT side effects.
D. Tingling of the scalp is not a recognized adverse reaction to ECT. Patients may experience various sensations, but tingling is not a common or documented response. The primary focus should be on more significant effects, such as temporary memory loss and potential confusion immediately following the treatment.
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