A nurse in an acute care facility is caring for a toddler.
For each assessment finding below, click to specify if the assessment finding is consistent with Crohn's disease, appendicitis, or intussusception. Each finding may support more than 1 disease process.
Temperature
Vomiting
Pain rating
Abdominal findings
Stool
The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"None"},"B":{"answers":"B,C"},"C":{"answers":"None"},"D":{"answers":"C"},"E":{"answers":"A,C"}}
- Temperature: A temperature of 37.4°C is within normal limits and does not specifically support any of the three conditions. While low-grade fever may be seen in appendicitis or Crohn’s flares, the absence of fever at this time limits its diagnostic value in this case.
- Vomiting: Vomiting in intussusception is common and often non-bilious in early stages, aligning with the child's light-colored emesis. Vomiting also occurs in appendicitis, especially in the early stages. However, it is not a prominent or early symptom of Crohn’s disease unless obstruction is present.
- Pain rating: Severe, intermittent abdominal pain where the child draws their knees to the chest and then returns to normal behavior is a classic symptom of intussusception. Neither Crohn’s disease nor appendicitis typically presents with this pattern, appendicitis pain is usually constant and worsening, while Crohn’s pain is chronic and non-episodic.
- Abdominal findings: A distended abdomen with hypoactive bowel sounds and a palpable sausage-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant is highly indicative of intussusception. These findings are not characteristic of appendicitis, which usually involves RLQ pain, or Crohn’s, which rarely presents with a discrete palpable mass.
- Stool: The presence of blood and mucus in the stool ("currant jelly stool") is strongly associated with intussusception and may also occur in Crohn’s disease during flares due to colonic inflammation. Appendicitis does not typically cause bloody or mucoid stools, making this finding inconsistent with that diagnosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices:
- Opioid intoxication: The client exhibits classic signs of opioid overdose, including shallow respirations, bradypnea, bradycardia, hypotension, hypothermia, slurred speech, and constricted pupils. These findings, combined with a history of oxycodone use, indicate opioid intoxication requiring immediate intervention.
- Obtain a prescription for naloxone: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the respiratory depression, sedation, and other life-threatening effects of opioid overdose. Timely administration can prevent respiratory failure and death.
- Prepare to initiate mechanical ventilation: The client’s respiratory rate is critically low (10/min) with oxygen saturation at 90%, indicating inadequate ventilation. Mechanical ventilation may be required to maintain oxygenation and prevent hypoxia while naloxone takes effect.
- Pupillary reaction: Monitoring pupillary constriction or dilation helps assess the client’s response to opioid reversal therapy and can indicate ongoing central nervous system depression or improvement.
- Respiratory rate: Continuous monitoring of respiratory rate is essential because hypoventilation is the most immediate life-threatening effect of opioid intoxication. Changes indicate whether interventions like naloxone or ventilation are effective.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
- Alcohol intoxication: Although the client has a history of alcohol use disorder, the current symptoms of miosis, hypoventilation, and hypotension are more consistent with opioid toxicity rather than acute alcohol intoxication.
- Opioid withdrawal: Withdrawal presents with agitation, tachypnea, hypertension, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, and GI upset. This client’s bradycardia, hypotension, and hypoventilation indicate intoxication, not withdrawal.
- Stimulant intoxication: Stimulant overdose typically presents with hypertension, tachycardia, hyperthermia, and agitation. The client’s hypotension, bradycardia, and CNS depression are inconsistent with stimulant use.
- Anticipate administering clonidine: Clonidine is used for opioid withdrawal management, not acute intoxication. Administering it in this scenario would not address the life-threatening hypoventilation or CNS depression.
- Collect a blood sample for ethanol level: While it may be helpful for history, ethanol testing does not address the immediate life-threatening opioid overdose and is not a priority intervention.
- Obtain prescription for restraints: There is no indication for restraints. The client’s symptoms are due to CNS depression, and restraints would not improve their condition and could worsen injury risk.
- Hyperreflexia: This is a sign of opioid withdrawal or CNS stimulant activity, not opioid intoxication. The client’s deep tendon reflexes are decreased, consistent with CNS depression.
- Cardiac arrhythmias: While arrhythmias can occur, there is no evidence in this assessment of dysrhythmias. Monitoring vital signs and oxygenation is more immediately critical.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices:
- Skin turgor: Poor skin turgor indicates dehydration, which can lead to electrolyte imbalances, hypotension, and renal complications. Immediate assessment and fluid management are necessary to prevent further physiological deterioration.
- Heart rate: A heart rate of 120/min is tachycardic. This can be caused by dehydration, stimulant effects of mania, or other underlying medical issues. It requires prompt monitoring and intervention to prevent cardiovascular compromise.
- Sleep pattern: The client has not slept for 2 days, which increases the risk for physical exhaustion, worsening psychiatric symptoms, and impaired judgment. Sleep deprivation in the context of mania requires immediate attention to stabilize the client.
- Hallucinations: The client reports listening to unseen others, indicating auditory hallucinations. This can pose a risk for self-harm or unsafe behaviors, and immediate psychiatric assessment and intervention are warranted.
Rationale for incorrect choice:
- Hygiene: While the client’s hair and clothing are unclean, indicating self-care deficits, this is not an immediate threat to physiological stability. It is important for overall care planning but does not require urgent intervention compared to dehydration, tachycardia, sleep deprivation, or hallucinations.
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