A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is requesting a diaphragm.Which of the following findings in the client's history should the nurse identify as a contraindication for this type of contraception?
Deep-vein thrombosis.
Tobacco use.
Recurrent urinary tract infections.
History of positive group B streptococcus B-hemolytic.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is Choice C.
Choice A rationale: Deep-vein thrombosis is not a contraindication for using a diaphragm. The diaphragm does not affect blood clotting mechanisms.
Choice B rationale: Tobacco use is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease but is not a contraindication for diaphragm use.
Choice C rationale: Recurrent urinary tract infections are a contraindication for diaphragm use. The diaphragm can increase the risk of urinary tract infections due to its placement and the need for spermicide, which can disrupt the natural flora of the vagina.
Choice D rationale: A history of positive group B streptococcus B-hemolytic is not a contraindication for diaphragm use. Group B strep colonization is managed with antibiotics during labor, not by contraceptive choice.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Ensuring the client has a full bladder before the procedure is incorrect. A full bladder can cause discomfort during the pelvic examination and may obscure the pelvic organs, making the examination more challenging for the provider.
Choice B rationale
Instructing the client to bear down when the speculum is inserted is correct. Bearing down helps relax the pelvic muscles, making it easier to insert the speculum and perform the examination with minimal discomfort.
Choice C rationale
Encouraging the client to take rapid, shallow breaths during the procedure is incorrect. This can increase anxiety and tension in the pelvic muscles, making the examination more uncomfortable.
Choice D rationale
Applying povidone-iodine to the provider's fingers prior to bimanual examination is incorrect. The standard procedure involves using gloves and lubricant to prevent infection and ensure patient comfort, not povidone-iodine.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A maternal age of 30 years is not a significant risk factor for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is more common in very young mothers or those over the age of 35.
Choice B rationale
A prepregnancy BMI of 19 is within the normal range and is not considered a risk factor for preeclampsia, which is more commonly associated with higher BMI or obesity.
Choice C rationale
Being in the third pregnancy (multiparity) is not a strong risk factor for preeclampsia. The risk factors are more closely related to the individual's health conditions and first pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
Chronic hypertension is a well-known risk factor for preeclampsia as it indicates pre-existing cardiovascular issues that can predispose one to developing preeclampsia during pregnancy.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.