A nurse is reinforcing teaching about risk factors for preeclampsia with a group of clients who are pregnant. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include in the teaching?
Chronic hypertension
Maternal age of 30 years
Prepregnancy BMI of 19
Third pregnancy
The Correct Answer is A
A) Correct - Chronic hypertension is a significant risk factor for developing preeclampsia during pregnancy. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage, typically occurring after 20 weeks of pregnancy.
B) Incorrect- Maternal age of 30 years is not a specific risk factor for preeclampsia.
However, maternal age over 40 is considered a risk factor.
C) Incorrect- A prepregnancy BMI of 19 falls within the healthy weight range and is not typically associated with an increased risk of preeclampsia.
D) Incorrect- Having a third pregnancy is not inherently a strong risk factor for preeclampsia. Women experiencing their first pregnancy are at a slightly higher risk.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A) Incorrect - Applying oxygen is not the priority action in the case of excessive vaginal bleeding and a boggy uterus. Oxygen therapy would be appropriate if there were signs of respiratory distress or decreased oxygen saturation, but it does not directly address the primary concern of uterine atony and bleeding.
B) Incorrect - Administering methylergonovine might be appropriate, but the priority is to address the uterine atony with fundal massage first. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions and control bleeding, which is crucial in this scenario.
C) Incorrect - Encouraging the client to empty her bladder is important, but it is not the first action to take in the case of excessive bleeding and uterine atony. Immediate intervention to control the bleeding takes precedence.
D) Correct - Initiating fundal massage is the priority action in this situation. A boggy uterus with excessive vaginal bleeding indicates uterine atony, which is a potentially life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention to prevent further bleeding.
Fundal massage helps the uterus contract and control bleeding. Addressing uterine atony is critical to prevent further hemorrhage and stabilize the client's condition.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct - Chronic hypertension is a significant risk factor for developing preeclampsia during pregnancy. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage, typically occurring after 20 weeks of pregnancy.
B) Incorrect- Maternal age of 30 years is not a specific risk factor for preeclampsia.
However, maternal age over 40 is considered a risk factor.
C) Incorrect- A prepregnancy BMI of 19 falls within the healthy weight range and is not typically associated with an increased risk of preeclampsia.
D) Incorrect- Having a third pregnancy is not inherently a strong risk factor for preeclampsia. Women experiencing their first pregnancy are at a slightly higher risk.
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