A nurse in a provider's office is reinforcing teaching to a client who is at high risk for ovarian cancer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

"My doctor will perform pelvic exams to detect for ovarian cancer."

"I will develop ovarian cancer If I have the BRCA1 gene."

"I will have regular Pap tests to monitor for ovarian cancer."

"A decreased CA125 level places me at greater risk for ovarian cancer."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   "My doctor will perform pelvic exams to detect for ovarian cancer.": Pelvic exams can help detect ovarian cancer or abnormalities in the pelvic region, although they are not always definitive.
B.   "I will develop ovarian cancer If I have the BRCA1 gene.": While having the BRCA1 gene mutation increases the risk of ovarian cancer, not everyone with this gene mutation will develop the disease.
C.   "I will have regular Pap tests to monitor for ovarian cancer.": Pap tests are used to screen for cervical cancer, not ovarian cancer.
D.   "A decreased CA125 level places me at greater risk for ovarian cancer.": An elevated CA125 level is associated with ovarian cancer, not a decreased level.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. This response accurately describes the pathophysiology of sickle cell crisis. During a crisis, sickled red blood cells clump together, leading to microvascular occlusion and impaired blood flow to tissues, resulting in pain.
B. Bleeding in the joints is not a characteristic feature of sickle cell crisis. It may occur in other conditions such as hemophilia or osteoarthritis but not in sickle cell crisis.
C. Disturbance in cellular metabolism is not the primary mechanism underlying the pain experienced during sickle cell crisis.
D. Bone marrow expansion with sickled cells may contribute to bone pain in sickle cell disease, but it is not the primary cause of pain during a sickle cell crisis.

A. An early sign is scrotal warmth and redness. B. Close male relatives are at increased risk for the disease. C. It typically occurs between ages 15 to 40. D. It occurs in both testicles equally. E. Impotence usually occurs after an orchiectomy.

Correct Answer is ["B","C"]

Explanation

A. Scrotal warmth and redness are not typically early signs of testicular cancer. Common signs include painless testicular swelling or a lump.
B. Close male relatives of individuals with testicular cancer have a higher risk of developing the disease themselves, suggesting a genetic component.
C. Testicular cancer typically occurs in younger men, with the highest incidence between ages 15 to 40.
D. Testicular cancer usually affects only one testicle, though it can occur in both.
E. Impotence is not a common complication of orchiectomy, the surgical removal of one or both testicles. However, other complications such as infertility may occur.

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A nurse in a provider's office is reinforcing teaching to a client who is at high risk for ovarian cancer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

TJ, a 30-year-old client is admitted in sickle cell crisis with symptoms of dyspnea and leg pain. TJ's significant other asks, "I don't really understand why he is hurting so badly." Which of the following responses by the nurse is best?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new diagnosis of testicular cancer.Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["B","C"]

Explanation

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