A nurse in a long-term care facility is assessing an older adult client for depression. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Rambling speech
Insomnia
Rapid mood swings
Sundowning
The Correct Answer is B
A. Rambling speech
Rambling speech is not a typical finding associated with depression. It may indicate other conditions or issues.
B. Insomnia
Insomnia, or difficulty sleeping, is a common symptom of depression. Many individuals with depression experience trouble falling asleep, staying asleep, or both.
C. Rapid mood swings
Rapid mood swings are not typically associated with depression. Depression often involves persistent low mood rather than rapid fluctuations.
D. Sundowning
Sundowning refers to a state of confusion and restlessness that occurs in the late afternoon and evening, often seen in individuals with dementia. While it can be related to mood disturbances, it's not specific to depression.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "Why did you feel like giving away your belongings?"
This response is empathetic and invites the client to explore their feelings and motivations. It shows understanding and can help the nurse comprehend the client's emotional state better.
B. "You should find a support group to attend."
This response suggests a proactive step to seek support, which can be helpful. However, it might be premature in this context as the nurse hasn't fully assessed the client's situation yet. It's important to understand the client's feelings and circumstances before recommending specific interventions.
C. "Everyone feels a little down sometimes."
This response minimizes the client's feelings and can be invalidating. It doesn't acknowledge the seriousness of the client's statement, which might discourage them from opening up further.
D. "Can you tell me how you have been feeling lately?"
As previously explained, this response is empathetic and open-ended, encouraging the client to share their emotions and thoughts. It's a good starting point for a therapeutic conversation, allowing the nurse to assess the client's current mental state.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Naltrexone:
Naltrexone is an opioid receptor antagonist. It blocks the effects of opioids and alcohol in the brain. It's often used as part of a long-term treatment plan to prevent relapse in individuals who have already stopped drinking and are trying to maintain sobriety. Naltrexone does not directly manage acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Instead, it helps individuals reduce or quit drinking over the long term by reducing the pleasure associated with alcohol consumption.
B. Disulfiram:
Disulfiram is an aversion therapy medication used as a deterrent to drinking. When someone taking disulfiram consumes alcohol, it causes unpleasant physical reactions, such as nausea, flushing, and palpitations. This discourages individuals from drinking while they are on the medication. Disulfiram is not used to manage acute withdrawal symptoms but rather serves as a deterrent to drinking for individuals who are trying to maintain sobriety.
C. Lorazepam:
Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine medication that acts as a central nervous system depressant. It is commonly used to manage acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Benzodiazepines like lorazepam help to reduce anxiety, agitation, and the risk of seizures associated with alcohol withdrawal. They are typically used in a controlled manner to provide relief during the acute phase of withdrawal.
D. Acamprosate:
Acamprosate is used in the maintenance phase of alcohol use disorder treatment. It helps individuals maintain abstinence by stabilizing the chemical imbalances in the brain that occur after prolonged alcohol use. Acamprosate is not used for acute withdrawal management but is instead prescribed to support individuals who have already stopped drinking and are trying to avoid relapse over the long term.
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