A nurse in a hospital is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has a large amount of painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The client is placed on a fetal monitor indicating a regular fetal heart rate of 138/min and no uterine contractions. The client's vital signs are: blood pressure 98/52 mm Hg, heart rate 118/min, respiratory rate 24/min, and temperature 36.4°C (97.6°F). Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
Initiate IV access.
Witness the signature for informed consent for surgery.
Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
Prepare the abdominal and perineal areas.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason:
In the case of a client with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 38 weeks of gestation, the priority is to stabilize the client's condition. Initiating IV access is crucial as it allows for rapid administration of fluids or blood products to address potential hypovolemia and to prepare for the possibility of an emergency cesarean section if needed. The client's low blood pressure and elevated heart rate suggest that she may be experiencing hypovolemia, which can quickly lead to hypovolemic shock if not treated promptly.
Choice B reason:
While obtaining informed consent is important before any surgical procedure, it is not the immediate priority. The priority is to stabilize the client, and consent can be obtained concurrently with other stabilizing actions or by another member of the healthcare team.
Choice C reason:
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is a supportive measure that can be necessary during labor or before surgery to keep the bladder empty, reducing the risk of bladder injury during a cesarean section and monitoring urine output as an indicator of renal perfusion. However, it is not the first priority in the presence of significant vaginal bleeding.
Choice D reason:
Preparing the abdominal and perineal areas is part of the preoperative procedure for a cesarean section. This action would follow after the client has been stabilized and a decision for surgery has been made.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["0504"]
Explanation
To calculate the estimated date of birth (EDB), also known as the due date, we use Naegele's Rule, which involves adding one year, subtracting three months, and adding seven days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP). Using this rule, if the LMP was on July 27, the EDB would be:
- Add one year: July 27, 2024
- Subtract three months: April 27, 2024
- Add seven days: May 4, 2024
Therefore, the EDB in MMDD format is 0504.
Reason:
Naegele's Rule is a standard way of calculating the due date for a pregnancy. The rule estimates the expected date of delivery (EDD) by adding one year, subtracting three months, and adding seven days to the date of a woman's last menstrual period (LMP). This calculation assumes a regular menstrual cycle of 28 days and ovulation occurring on the 14th day of the cycle. The EDB is typically set at 40 weeks from the LMP, which is approximately 280 days. While this method provides an estimate, only about 4% of births occur on the exact due date, and most births occur within a range of two weeks before or after the estimated due date.
It's important to note that the EDB is an estimate and can be influenced by factors such as the length of menstrual cycles, the exact day of ovulation, and the date of conception. Ultrasounds and other prenatal tests can provide additional information to refine the due date estimate as the pregnancy progresses.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice a reason:
Elevated blood pressure is a primary indicator for preeclampsia, which is a condition characterized by hypertension and often proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. The criteria for hypertension in pregnancy are a systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg or higher on two occasions at least 4 hours apart. If a pregnant client presents with elevated blood pressure, it is crucial for the nurse to initiate further evaluation for preeclampsia, as this condition can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the fetus.
Choice b reason:
Joint pain is not a typical sign of preeclampsia. While joint pain can be a symptom experienced during pregnancy due to various physiological changes, it is not specifically associated with preeclampsia and does not warrant further evaluation for this disorder on its own.
Choice c reason:
Vaginal discharge during pregnancy is common and can vary in consistency and amount. It is not a specific indicator of preeclampsia unless accompanied by other symptoms such as elevated blood pressure or proteinuria. Normal vaginal discharge is usually clear or milky white and does not indicate the need for preeclampsia evaluation.
Choice d reason:
Increased urine output is not typically associated with preeclampsia. In fact, preeclampsia can sometimes lead to reduced urine output due to kidney impairment. If a client has increased urine output, it may be due to other factors such as increased fluid intake or gestational diabetes.
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