A nurse in a gynecology office is caring for a client.
The physical examination reveals inflamed labia majora and minora and a large amount of frothy, yellow-green, malodorous discharge.
Based on the client’s medical record, which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate receiving from the provider?
Instruct the client to avoid alcohol for 72 hr after treatment.
Administer metronidazole 2 g POx dose.
Perform an oatmeal sitz bath.
Recommend the client’s partner receive treatment.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Instructing the client to avoid alcohol for 72 hr after treatment is a common instruction given when a client is prescribed certain medications, such as metronidazole, due to the potential for a disulfiram-like reaction. However, this choice does not directly address the client’s symptoms of inflamed labia majora and minora and a large amount of frothy, yellow-green, malodorous discharge.
Choice B rationale
The client’s symptoms are indicative of Trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection caused by a parasite. Metronidazole is a medication commonly used to treat this infection. A single dose of 2 g orally is a typical treatment regimen.
Choice C rationale
An oatmeal sitz bath can help soothe irritated skin and reduce inflammation, but it does not treat the underlying cause of the client’s symptoms.
Choice D rationale
Recommending the client’s partner receive treatment is important in cases of sexually transmitted infections to prevent reinfection. However, this choice does not directly address the client’s immediate need for treatment.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice C.
Choice A rationale: Inserting an IV catheter is important for potential fluid and medication administration, but it is not the immediate priority action.
Choice B rationale: Administering glucocorticoids is important for fetal lung maturity in case of preterm birth, but it is not the immediate priority upon admission.
Choice C rationale: Applying an external fetal monitor is the priority action. It allows for continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate and uterine activity to assess the well-being of the fetus and detect any signs of distress.
Choice D rationale: Monitoring vaginal bleeding is important for managing placenta previa, but it is not the immediate priority. Continuous fetal monitoring takes precedence to ensure fetal safety.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hypertension is the most common risk factor for placental abruption. Placental abruption occurs when the placenta partly or completely separates from the inner wall of the uterus before delivery. This can decrease or block the baby’s supply of oxygen and nutrients and cause heavy bleeding in the mother. Chronic high blood pressure (hypertension) is a known risk factor for placental abruption.
Choice B rationale
While blunt force trauma can be a cause of placental abruption, it is not the most common risk factor. Trauma or injury to the abdomen can cause placental abruption, but hypertension is a more common risk factor.
Choice C rationale
Cigarette smoking is a known risk factor for placental abruption, but it is not the most common risk factor. Smoking during pregnancy can increase the risk of placental abruption, but hypertension is a more common risk factor.
Choice D rationale
Cocaine use is a known risk factor for placental abruption, but it is not the most common risk factor. Use of cocaine during pregnancy can increase the risk of placental abruption, but hypertension is a more common risk factor.
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