A nurse is attending to an antepartum client whose lab results show a negative rubella titer.
What is the correct interpretation of this data?
The client is immune to the rubella virus.
The client needs a rubella vaccination immediately.
The client should receive a rubella immunization post-delivery.
The client is not currently infected with the rubella virus.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
A negative rubella titer indicates that the client does not have immunity to the rubella virus. Therefore, the statement that the client is immune to the rubella virus is incorrect.
Choice B rationale
While it is true that a person with a negative rubella titer needs a rubella vaccination, it is not recommended to administer the vaccine immediately during pregnancy due to the potential risks to the fetus. Therefore, this statement is not correct in this context.
Choice C rationale
The correct interpretation of a negative rubella titer in an antepartum client is that the client should receive a rubella immunization post-delivery. This is because rubella can cause serious complications if contracted during pregnancy, including congenital rubella syndrome in the newborn. Vaccination post-delivery will protect the client in future pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
A negative rubella titer does not provide information about whether the client is currently infected with the rubella virus. It only indicates that the client does not have immunity to the virus. Therefore, this statement is not a correct interpretation of the data.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A cough and fever in a client at 38 weeks of gestation could indicate an infection, which should be addressed promptly. However, it is not as immediately life-threatening as painless vaginal bleeding at 28 weeks of gestation, which could indicate a serious complication such as placental abruption.
Choice B rationale
Nausea and vomiting at 14 weeks of gestation are common symptoms of early pregnancy and, while uncomfortable, are not usually a sign of a serious problem. This client should be seen, but not before a client with a potentially life-threatening condition like painless vaginal bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Painless vaginal bleeding at 28 weeks of gestation is a serious symptom that could indicate placental abruption, a condition where the placenta detaches from the uterus, which can be life-threatening for both the mother and the baby. This client should be seen first.
Choice D rationale
Vaginal spotting in a client who has missed a period could indicate early pregnancy or a number of other conditions. While this client should be seen to confirm the cause of the spotting, it is not as immediately urgent as painless vaginal bleeding at 28 weeks of gestation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 38-year-old client who reports smoking one pack of cigarettes every day. Oral contraceptives are contraindicated in women who are over 35 years old and smoke. This is because the combination of oral contraceptives and smoking increases the risk of serious cardiovascular side effects, such as blood clots, stroke, or heart attack. These risks are even higher in women over 35 years old who smoke. Therefore, this client should not receive oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of these serious side effects.
Choice B rationale
A 28-year-old client who has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease. While pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) can lead to complications such as infertility and ectopic pregnancy, it is not a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives. In fact, oral contraceptives can provide some protection against PID by causing changes in the cervix that make it more resistant to infection.
Choice C rationale
A 32-year-old client who has benign breast disease. Benign breast disease is not a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives. While some studies have suggested a slightly increased risk of breast cancer in women who have used oral contraceptives, the risk appears to decrease over time once the contraceptives are stopped.
Choice D rationale
A 26-year-old client who has migraine headaches at the start of each menstrual cycle. While migraines can be a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives, it generally applies to migraines with aura. Women who have migraines with aura have an increased risk of stroke when using oral contraceptives. However, for women who have migraines without aura, the benefits of using oral contraceptives usually outweigh the risks.
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