A nurse is attending to an antepartum client whose lab results show a negative rubella titer.
What is the correct interpretation of this data?
The client is immune to the rubella virus.
The client needs a rubella vaccination immediately.
The client should receive a rubella immunization post-delivery.
The client is not currently infected with the rubella virus.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
A negative rubella titer indicates that the client does not have immunity to the rubella virus. Therefore, the statement that the client is immune to the rubella virus is incorrect.
Choice B rationale
While it is true that a person with a negative rubella titer needs a rubella vaccination, it is not recommended to administer the vaccine immediately during pregnancy due to the potential risks to the fetus. Therefore, this statement is not correct in this context.
Choice C rationale
The correct interpretation of a negative rubella titer in an antepartum client is that the client should receive a rubella immunization post-delivery. This is because rubella can cause serious complications if contracted during pregnancy, including congenital rubella syndrome in the newborn. Vaccination post-delivery will protect the client in future pregnancies.
Choice D rationale
A negative rubella titer does not provide information about whether the client is currently infected with the rubella virus. It only indicates that the client does not have immunity to the virus. Therefore, this statement is not a correct interpretation of the data.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While follow-up testing is important for individuals diagnosed with chlamydia, retesting is typically recommended 3 months after treatment, not 6 months.
Choice B rationale
This is the correct statement. Chlamydia is treated with antibiotics, and a single dose of azithromycin is one of the recommended treatments.
Choice C rationale
This statement is incorrect. Even if a sexual partner of a person diagnosed with chlamydia has no symptoms, they still need to be tested and treated if necessary. Chlamydia can be asymptomatic, and untreated chlamydia can lead to serious health problems.
Choice D rationale
While abstaining from sexual relations until treatment is complete is recommended, it is not the only necessary step. The client’s sexual partners also need to be informed, tested, and treated if necessary.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice a. Excessive uterine enlargement.
Choice A rationale:
Hydatidiform mole, also known as a molar pregnancy, often presents with excessive uterine enlargement. This is due to the abnormal growth of trophoblastic tissue, which can cause the uterus to be larger than expected for gestational age.
Choice B rationale:
An irregular fetal heart rate is not typically associated with a hydatidiform mole because there is usually no viable fetus present in this condition.
Choice C rationale:
A rapid decline in human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels is not expected. Instead, hCG levels are usually abnormally high due to the trophoblastic tissue proliferation.
Choice D rationale:
Profuse, clear vaginal discharge is not a characteristic finding of a hydatidiform mole. Instead, vaginal bleeding or discharge that may be brownish and resemble prune juice is more common.
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