A nurse in a family practice office routinely reviews clients' immunization status at their annual physical examination visits. For which of the following clients should the nurse recommend a human papillomavirus immunization?
A teenage boy
An older adult woman
A preschool-age girl
A middle adult man
The Correct Answer is A
A. A teenage boy is the correct answer. The HPV vaccine is recommended for males and females starting at age 11 or 12, but it is most effective when given before any sexual activity. The vaccine can be administered through age 26 for individuals who were not vaccinated at the appropriate age.
B. An older adult woman is not typically recommended for the HPV vaccine. The vaccine is most effective when given before exposure to the virus, typically in preadolescent girls and boys. Women over the age of 26 may not benefit as much from the vaccine.
C. A preschool-age girl is unlikely to receive the HPV vaccine at this age, as it is usually given starting at age 11 or 12, ideally before the onset of sexual activity.
D. A middle adult man may still receive the HPV vaccine if not previously vaccinated, but it is primarily recommended for individuals under age 26.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Anorexia: This is not a common or serious adverse effect of heparin. It is not usually a priority for reporting to the provider.
B. Epistaxis: This is correct. Heparin is an anticoagulant, and one of the major risks associated with its use is bleeding. Epistaxis (nosebleeds) is a common sign of bleeding that could be a result of heparin therapy, and it should be reported to the provider promptly.
C. Bradycardia: Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of heparin. Heparin primarily affects clotting mechanisms, not heart rate.
D. Weight gain: Weight gain is not a typical adverse effect of heparin. If the weight gain is significant or linked to fluid retention, it may need to be assessed, but it is not a typical reaction to heparin.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Respiratory acidosis is incorrect. Chronic diarrhea typically leads to metabolic acidosis, not respiratory acidosis. Metabolic acidosis occurs due to the loss of bicarbonate through diarrhea, which affects the body’s acid-base balance.
B. Hypermagnesemia is incorrect. Chronic diarrhea is more likely to lead to hypomagnesemia due to the loss of electrolytes through frequent bowel movements, not an increase in magnesium levels.
C. Hypertension is incorrect. Chronic diarrhea generally leads to dehydration and hypotension due to fluid loss rather than high blood pressure.
D. Hypokalemia is correct. Chronic diarrhea causes significant potassium loss, which can result in hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Potassium is lost in the stool, and this depletion can lead to muscle weakness, arrhythmias, and other complications.
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