A nurse in a family practice office routinely reviews clients' immunization status at their annual physical examination visits. For which of the following clients should the nurse recommend a human papillomavirus immunization?

A teenage boy

An older adult woman

A preschool-age girl

A middle adult man

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. A teenage boy is the correct answer. The HPV vaccine is recommended for males and females starting at age 11 or 12, but it is most effective when given before any sexual activity. The vaccine can be administered through age 26 for individuals who were not vaccinated at the appropriate age.

B. An older adult woman is not typically recommended for the HPV vaccine. The vaccine is most effective when given before exposure to the virus, typically in preadolescent girls and boys. Women over the age of 26 may not benefit as much from the vaccine.

C. A preschool-age girl is unlikely to receive the HPV vaccine at this age, as it is usually given starting at age 11 or 12, ideally before the onset of sexual activity.

D. A middle adult man may still receive the HPV vaccine if not previously vaccinated, but it is primarily recommended for individuals under age 26.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Ringing in the ears (tinnitus) is incorrect. Tinnitus is not a common adverse effect of propranolol. This symptom is more commonly associated with ototoxic medications, such as certain antibiotics or diuretics.

B. Bradycardia is correct. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that reduces heart rate and blood pressure by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors. One of its primary adverse effects is bradycardia (slow heart rate., which can lead to dizziness, fatigue, or hypotension.

C. Hypertension is incorrect. Propranolol is used to treat hypertension, not cause it. By reducing cardiac output and suppressing sympathetic nervous system activity, propranolol generally lowers blood pressure.

D. Headache is incorrect. While some clients might experience headaches due to changes in blood pressure, headache is not a primary adverse effect of propranolol.

A. BUN 20 mg/dL B. Platelet count 77,000/mm3 C. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL D. WBC count 18,000/mm3

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. BUN 20 mg/dL: This is not specific to HELLP syndrome. A BUN level of 20 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not indicate the presence of HELLP syndrome, which is associated with liver dysfunction and low platelet count.

B. Platelet count 77,000/mm3: This is correct. HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelets) is characterized by a low platelet count, often less than 100,000/mm3, which is a critical indicator of this condition.

C. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL: This is a normal hemoglobin level and is not typically associated with HELLP syndrome, where hemolysis (destruction of red blood cells) can cause anemia, which would lower hemoglobin levels.

D. WBC count 18,000/mm3: While an elevated WBC count can indicate infection or inflammation, it is not specifically associated with HELLP syndrome. The hallmark features of HELLP syndrome are low platelets and liver enzyme elevation, not elevated WBC.

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A nurse in a family practice office routinely reviews clients' immunization status at their annual physical examination visits. For which of the following clients should the nurse recommend a human papillomavirus immunization?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse in a long-term care facility is contributing to the plan of care for a client who has a new prescription for propranolol. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of the medication?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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