A nurse in a family practice office routinely reviews clients' immunization status at their annual physical examination visits. For which of the following clients should the nurse recommend a human papillomavirus immunization?
A teenage boy
An older adult woman
A preschool-age girl
A middle adult man
The Correct Answer is A
A. A teenage boy is the correct answer. The HPV vaccine is recommended for males and females starting at age 11 or 12, but it is most effective when given before any sexual activity. The vaccine can be administered through age 26 for individuals who were not vaccinated at the appropriate age.
B. An older adult woman is not typically recommended for the HPV vaccine. The vaccine is most effective when given before exposure to the virus, typically in preadolescent girls and boys. Women over the age of 26 may not benefit as much from the vaccine.
C. A preschool-age girl is unlikely to receive the HPV vaccine at this age, as it is usually given starting at age 11 or 12, ideally before the onset of sexual activity.
D. A middle adult man may still receive the HPV vaccine if not previously vaccinated, but it is primarily recommended for individuals under age 26.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Administer an anti-anxiety medication is not the first action. The nurse should first assess and manage the client's environment and emotional state before resorting to medication.
B. Minimize environmental stimuli in the client's surroundings is correct. The client is experiencing anxiety, and minimizing stimuli helps to reduce environmental triggers and can immediately alleviate distress.
C. Explore behaviors that have helped to reduce the client's anxiety in the past is a good intervention but should not be the first response. The immediate priority is to reduce the anxiety by controlling the environment.
D. Explain to the client that anxiety causes physical manifestations is helpful but should occur after the immediate anxiety-reduction measures are in place. Providing this information can be part of the therapeutic process but does not address the client’s immediate distress.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Give a dose of alendronate is incorrect. Alendronate is a medication used to treat osteoporosis, and it does not address low potassium levels. In this case, the focus should be on correcting the potassium imbalance.
B. Administer furosemide is incorrect. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause further loss of potassium. In a client with low potassium levels (hypokalemia., administering furosemide could worsen the condition and lead to life-threatening complications.
C. Apply a cardiac monitor is correct. Hypokalemia (potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L) can cause significant cardiac arrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Applying a cardiac monitor is essential for monitoring the client’s heart rhythm and detecting any abnormalities related to the low potassium level.
D. Monitor for Chvostek's sign is incorrect. Chvostek's sign is indicative of hypocalcemia, not hypokalemia. While both hypocalcemia and hypokalemia can cause neuromuscular excitability, monitoring for Chvostek’s sign is not a priority in the management of hypokalemia.
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