A nurse in a coronary care unit is admitting a patient who has had CPR following a cardiac arrest.
The patient is receiving lidocaine IV at 2 mg/min.
When the patient asks the nurse why he is receiving that medication, the nurse should explain that it has which of the following actions?
Relieves pain.
Slows intestinal motility.
Dissolves blood clots.
Prevents dysrhythmias.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Lidocaine does not primarily serve to relieve pain when administered intravenously. It is primarily used as an antiarrhythmic agent.
Choice B rationale
Lidocaine does not slow intestinal motility. This is not one of its primary actions.
Choice C rationale
Lidocaine does not dissolve blood clots. It is not an anticoagulant.
Choice D rationale
Lidocaine prevents dysrhythmias. It is an antidysrhythmic medication that delays the conduction in the heart and reduces the automaticity of heart tissue.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Intussusception is a serious condition in which part of the intestine slides into an adjacent part of the intestine. This “telescoping” often blocks food or fluid from passing through.
Intussusception also cuts off the blood supply to the part of the intestine that’s affected. It can lead to a tear in the bowel (perforation), infection and death of bowel tissue.
Choice B rationale
Wilms’ tumor is a rare kidney cancer that primarily affects children. Also known as nephroblastoma, Wilms’ tumor is the most common cancer of the kidneys in children. Wilms’ tumor most often affects children ages 3 to 4 and becomes much less common after age 52.
Choice C rationale
Pyloric stenosis is a condition that affects infants between birth and 6 months of age and causes forceful vomiting that can lead to dehydration. It’s the second most common reason why newborns have surgery. Pyloric stenosis can be fixed with a surgical procedure called pyloromyotomy.
Choice D rationale
Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder that causes your body to excrete too much protein in your urine. Nephrotic syndrome is usually caused by damage to the clusters of small blood vessels in your kidneys that filter waste and excess water from your blood.
Correct Answer is ["4"]
Explanation
Step 1 is: Identify the dose ordered and the dose available. The dose ordered is 40 mg and the dose available is 10 mg/mL.
Step 2 is: Set up the equation to calculate the volume to administer: (40 mg ÷ 10 mg/mL) = 4 mL.
So, the nurse should administer 4 mL per dose.
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