A nurse has received morning report on the following four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A client who was administered acyclovir for cellulitis reports pain in the affected leg
A client who was administered adalimumab for Crohn’s disease, has a serum calcium level of 10 mg/dL, and reports a headache
A client who was administered erythromycin for acute glomerulonephritis and reports reddish brown urinary output
A client who was administered glipizide for type 2 diabetes mellitus and has a blood glucose of 68 mg/dl
The Correct Answer is D
A. Pain in the affected leg could indicate worsening of cellulitis or a potential complication like deep vein thrombosis (DVT), but there is no immediate indication of a life-threatening condition. This client should be assessed, but may not be the top priority unless other signs of complications are present.
B. A serum calcium level of 10 mg/dL is within the normal range (8.5 to 10.5 mg/dL). A headache, while concerning, is not immediately life-threatening unless there are additional symptoms suggesting something more severe.
C.Reddish brown urine suggests hematuria, a symptom of glomerulonephritis. This could indicate ongoing kidney issues, but unless there are signs of severe kidney failure or systemic infection, this might not be the most urgent case.
D. A blood glucose level of 68 mg/dL is low and can lead to hypoglycemia, which can be immediately life-threatening if it progresses to severe hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include confusion, dizziness, sweating, and can escalate to seizures or unconsciousness if not promptly treated.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The patient’s paralyzing agent dose is adequate, but needs to be given more often.
In a Train-of-four (TOF) assessment, four stimuli are delivered in rapid succession, and the response is observed. The number of twitches in the patient's thumb indicates the degree of neuromuscular blockade. In this case, if the patient's thumb twitches three times, it suggests that there is still some residual neuromuscular blockade, and the paralyzing agent dose is adequate. However, the frequency of administration may need to be increased to maintain the desired level of paralysis or neuromuscular blockade.
B. The patient’s paralyzing agent dose is too low and needs to be increased:
This would be indicated if there were fewer than three twitches in response to the TOF assessment.
C. The patient’s paralyzing agent dose is appropriate and does not need to be changed:
The response of three twitches suggests that there is still some neuromuscular blockade, so the dose or frequency may need adjustment.
D. The patient’s paralyzing agent dose is too high and needs to be reduced:
If there were no twitches or a complete absence of twitches, this might suggest an excessive dose. However, three twitches indicate some degree of neuromuscular blockade.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Suppress respiratory effort
Pancuronium is a neuromuscular blocking agent that is often used to induce paralysis in patients requiring mechanical ventilation. It works by blocking the transmission of nerve impulses at the neuromuscular junction, leading to skeletal muscle paralysis. In the context of a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) on mechanical ventilation, the use of pancuronium helps to suppress respiratory effort, allowing for better control of the patient's ventilation and oxygenation.
B. Decrease chest wall compliance:
Pancuronium does not directly affect chest wall compliance. It primarily acts on skeletal muscles, leading to paralysis.
C. Decrease respiratory secretions:
Pancuronium is not used to decrease respiratory secretions. It is a neuromuscular blocking agent with the main goal of inducing paralysis.
D. Induce sedation:
Pancuronium does not induce sedation. It works on the neuromuscular junction and does not have sedative properties. Sedation may be achieved with other medications, such as sedative agents.
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