A nurse has received change-of-shift report on four assigned clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse intervene to prevent a potential food and medication interaction?
A client who is receiving verapamil and has a continuous infusion of total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
A client who is taking phenytoin and is requesting a milkshake
A client who is receiving a diet high in potassium-rich foods and furosemide by mouth
A client who is receiving an MAOI and is requesting a cheeseburger for dinner
The Correct Answer is D
- A. This choice is incorrect because verapamil and TPN do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can lower blood pressure and heart rate, while TPN is a form of intravenous nutrition that provides calories, electrolytes, vitamins, and minerals. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and blood glucose levels, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
- B. This choice is incorrect because phenytoin and milkshakes do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant that can decrease the absorption of some vitamins, such as folic acid and vitamin D, but milkshakes are not a major source of these nutrients. The nurse should encourage the client to eat a balanced diet and take supplements as prescribed, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
- C. This choice is incorrect because potassium-rich foods and furosemide do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia, or low potassium levels, but potassium-rich foods can help prevent this complication. The nurse should monitor the client's electrolyte levels and fluid balance, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
- D. This choice is correct because MAOIs and cheeseburgers have a significant food and medication interaction. MAOIs are antidepressants that can cause hypertensive crisis, or dangerously high blood pressure, if the client consumes foods that contain tyramine, such as aged cheeses, cured meats, fermented foods, and beer. The nurse should intervene to prevent the client from eating a cheeseburger and educate the client about avoiding tyramine-containing foods while taking MAOIs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Suggesting that the client attend adult day care three times per week is incorrect. While social interaction is essential for the elderly, it does not address the specific needs of a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Moreover, attending adult day care may not necessarily promote diabetes management.
Choice B rationale:
Reviewing assisted living accommodations with the client is incorrect. Assisted living facilities might be suitable for some elderly individuals, but in this case, the client lives independently. There is no indication in the question stem that the client needs assisted living arrangements at this time.
Choice C rationale:
Discussing a long-term care referral for the client with the provider is incorrect. Long-term care facilities are designed for individuals who require extensive assistance with daily activities. There is no information in the question suggesting that the client's condition has deteriorated to the extent of needing long-term care.
Choice D rationale:
Instructing the client about the use of telehealth services is the correct intervention. Telehealth services, including remote monitoring of blood glucose levels, virtual consultations with healthcare providers, and medication management, can enhance diabetes management for elderly individuals living independently in rural areas. Telehealth provides access to healthcare professionals without the need for frequent travel, addressing the challenges faced by individuals residing in remote areas.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination is recommended for adolescents and young adults to prevent HPV-related cancers and diseases. However, in the context of older adults, especially those who are not previously vaccinated, the priority shifts to other immunizations that are more relevant to their age group.
Choice B rationale:
Rotavirus vaccination is administered to infants to protect against rotavirus infections, which can cause severe diarrhea and dehydration. It is not a priority immunization for older adults. Older adults are at higher risk for certain diseases, and their immunization focus should be on vaccines that prevent those specific conditions.
Choice C rationale:
Diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccination is essential for children and adults, especially for those who have not received a complete series of vaccinations. However, the question specifies older adults, and DTaP is typically administered to children. While it is crucial for healthcare providers and family members to stay up-to-date with their vaccinations, other immunizations are more pertinent for older adults.
Choice D rationale:
Herpes zoster vaccination (shingles vaccine) is recommended for adults aged 50 years and older. Herpes zoster is a painful rash caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, which also causes chickenpox. Older adults are at higher risk of developing shingles, and vaccination can reduce the likelihood of the disease and its complications. Therefore, the nurse should recommend the herpes zoster vaccine to the group of older adults as it aligns with their age and addresses a specific health risk they face.
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