A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr.
A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain.
A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level.
A client who has 100 mL of fluid remaining in his IV bag.
The Correct Answer is C
This client should be assessed first because they are at risk of hypoglycemia, which is a medical emergency that can cause seizures, coma, or death if not treated promptly.
The nurse should check the client’s blood glucose level again and provide additional carbohydrates or glucose if needed.
Choice A is wrong because a client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr is not in immediate danger and can be assessed later.
The nurse should verify the client’s consent, allergies, and vital signs before the procedure, but this is not a priority over a client with low blood glucose.
Choice B is wrong because a client who received pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain is likely to have improved pain relief and does not need immediate assessment.
The nurse should monitor the client’s pain level, vital signs, and respiratory status periodically, but this is not a priority over a client with low blood glucose.
Choice D is wrong because a client who has 100 mL of fluid remaining in his IV bag is not in immediate danger and can be assessed later.
The nurse should change the IV bag when it is empty or nearly empty, but this is not a priority over a client with low blood glucose.
Normal blood glucose levels are between 70 to 100 mg/dL (3.9 to 5.5 mmol/L) when fasting, and less than 140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L) two hours after eating. A blood glucose level below 70 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L) is considered hypoglycemia and requires immediate treatment. Orange juice is a source of simple carbohydrates that can raise blood glucose quickly, but it may not be enough to prevent hypoglycemia in some cases.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Prednisone is a corticosteroid medication that can cause bone loss (osteoporosis) by reducing the absorption of calcium and increasing the excretion of calcium in the urine. Therefore, patients taking prednisone should increase their intake of calcium-rich foods or supplements to prevent bone loss and fractures.
Choice B is wrong because prednisone can cause weight gain, not weight loss, by increasing appetite and fluid retention. Patients taking prednisone should monitor their weight and limit their salt and calorie intake.
Choice C is wrong because prednisone should not be taken on an empty stomach, as it can cause stomach irritation, ulcers, or bleeding. Patients taking prednisone should take it with food or milk to protect their stomachs.
Choice D is wrong because prednisone should not be scheduled at bedtime, as it can cause insomnia or difficulty sleeping. Patients taking prednisone should take it in the morning or early afternoon to avoid disrupting their sleep cycle.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver. These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR). The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments. The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly. The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.
Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding.
Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.
aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.
These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.
aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.
Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.
Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.
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