A nurse is preparing to admit a 6-year-old with varicella to the pediatric unit.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Administer aspirin to the child for fever
Use droplet precautions when caring for the child.
Assign the child to a negative air pressure room.
Assess the child for Koplik spots
The Correct Answer is C
This is because varicella, or chickenpox, is a highly contagious disease caused by the varicellazoster virus (VZV), which can spread through the air or by direct contact with the fluid from the blisters. A negative air pressure room prevents the air from the room from circulating to other areas of the hospital, reducing the risk of transmission to other patients and staff.
Choice A is wrong because aspirin should not be given to children with chickenpox, as it can cause a serious condition called Reye’s syndrome, which affects the brain and liver. Instead, acetaminophen can be used to reduce fever.
Choice B is wrong because droplet precautions are not enough to prevent the spread of chickenpox. Droplet precautions involve wearing a mask and gloves when in close contact with the patient, but they do not prevent the virus from traveling through the air. Airborne precautions, which include a negative air pressure room and wearing a respirator, are needed for chickenpox.
Choice D is wrong because Koplik spots are not a sign of chickenpox, but of measles, another viral infection that causes a rash. Chickenpox causes an itchy rash with small, fluid-filled blisters that crust over.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
This client has a high risk of developing a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.
Tachypnea is a sign of respiratory distress and hypoxia, which can indicate a pulmonary embolism.
The nurse should assess this client first and notify the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8% is wellcontrolled and does not need urgent attention.
The normal range for HbA1c is 4% to 6%, and the goal for diabetic clients is less than 7%.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities is expected to have some degree of motor impairment due to the medication.
The nurse should monitor the client’s sensation, movement, and pain level, but this is not a priority over choice A. Choice D is wrong because a client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring is not in immediate danger.
Sinus arrhythmia is a normal variation of heart rhythm that occurs with breathing.
The nurse should observe the client’s vital signs and cardiac rhythm, but this is not a priority over choice A.
The correct answer is choice A. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
This client has a high risk of developing a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.
Tachypnea is a sign of respiratory distress and hypoxia, which can indicate a pulmonary embolism.
The nurse should assess this client first and notify the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8% is wellcontrolled and does not need urgent attention.
The normal range for HbA1c is 4% to 6%, and the goal for diabetic clients is less than 7%.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities is expected to have some degree of motor impairment due to the medication.
The nurse should monitor the client’s sensation, movement, and pain level, but this is not a priority over choice A. Choice D is wrong because a client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring is not in immediate danger.
Sinus arrhythmia is a normal variation of heart rhythm that occurs with breathing.
The nurse should observe the client’s vital signs and cardiac rhythm, but this is not a priority over choice A.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is A.
Weight loss.
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is used to treat fluid volume excess by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys. Weight loss is an indication that the medication has been effective in reducing the excess fluid in the body.
Choice B is wrong because decreased inflammation is not a direct effect of furosemide.
Inflammation is a response to tissue injury or infection, and furosemide does not have any anti-inflammatory properties.
Choice C is wrong because increased blood pressure is not an indication of furosemide effectiveness.
Furosemide lowers blood pressure by reducing the preload and afterload on the heart.
Increased blood pressure may indicate that the dose of furosemide is insufficient or that there are other factors contributing to hypertension.
Choice D is wrong because decreased pain is not an expected outcome of furosemide therapy.
Furosemide does not have any analgesic effects, and pain may be caused by various conditions that are not related to fluid volume excess.
Normal ranges for weight, blood pressure and pain vary depending on the individual patient’s baseline and goals.
However, some general guidelines are:
- Weight: A weight loss of 0.5 to 1 kg per day is considered safe and effective for patients with fluid volume excess.
- Blood pressure: The target blood pressure for most patients with heart failure is less than 130/80 mmHg.
- Pain: The pain level should be assessed using a valid and reliable scale, such as the numeric rating scale or the visual analogue scale, and treated according to the patient’s preference and tolerance.
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