A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr
A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain
A client who has 100 mL of fluid remaining in his IV bag
A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level
The Correct Answer is D
A. A client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr is not in immediate danger and can be assessed later.
- A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain may not need immediate assessment, unless there are signs of increased pain or other complications. The nurse can document the medication administration and observe the client’s response.
- A client who has 100 mL of fluid remaining in his IV bag may not need immediate assessment, unless there are signs of fluid overload or electrolyte imbalance. The nurse can monitor the client’s fluid intake and output, weight, blood pressure, pulse, temperature, and laboratory values.
- A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level need immediate assessment to reassess for persistent hypoglycemia
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","E"]
Explanation
A. Placenta previa: The client's symptoms do not specifically suggest placenta previa, which is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding, not back pain.
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation: The client's symptoms and vital signs do not suggest disseminated intravascular coagulation, which is a serious condition characterized by excessive bleeding and clotting throughout the body.
C. Preeclampsia: The presence of uterine contractions, elevated blood pressure, and a potential increase in body temperature can indicate the risk of developing preeclampsia, a condition characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to other organ systems, often developing after the 20th week of pregnancy.
D. Sepsis: While the client has an elevated temperature, the symptoms provided do not strongly indicate sepsis. Other signs, such as rapid heart rate, low blood pressure, and changes in mental status, are usually associated with sepsis.
E. Preterm prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM): The client's report of lower back pain, pinkish vaginal discharge, and uterine contractions can raise concern for the risk of preterm prelabour rupture of membranes, where the amniotic sac ruptures before the onset of labor.
F. Seizures: The client's symptoms and information provided do not indicate a risk of seizures. Seizures can be associated with conditions like preeclampsia but are not directly indicated by the client's current assessment.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A.Induration after a Mantoux test is a common response and does not necessarily require follow-up care.
B.A potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L).
C.Sodium phosphate is commonly used for bowel preparation before procedures like colonoscopy.
D.Correct. An INR of 1.8 for a client on warfarin is below the therapeutic range (usually 2.0- 3.0 for most indications), indicating that the client's blood may not be adequately anticoagulated. This requires follow-up to adjust the warfarin dose.
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