A nurse has identified tasks to delegate to a group of assistive personnel (AP) after receiving change-of-shift report.
Identify the sequence of steps the nurse should follow when delegating tasks to the APs.
Monitor progress of task completion with each AP.
Review the skill level and qualifications of each AP.
Evaluate the APs' performance of each task.
Communicate appropriate tasks to the APS with specific expectations
The Correct Answer is B,D,A,C
B. Review the skill level and qualifications of each AP.
Before delegating tasks, the nurse should assess the skill level and qualifications of each AP to ensure they have the necessary knowledge and training to perform the assigned tasks safely and effectively.
D. Communicate appropriate tasks to the APs with specific expectations.
The nurse should clearly communicate the tasks to be delegated to each AP. This includes providing specific instructions, expectations, and any necessary information to ensure the APs understand what is expected of them and can perform the tasks correctly.
A. Monitor progress of task completion with each AP.
Once the tasks are assigned, the nurse should periodically check in with each AP to monitor the progress of task completion. This allows the nurse to provide support, answer questions, and ensure that tasks are being performed as expected.
C. Evaluate the APs' performance of each task.
After the tasks are completed, the nurse should evaluate the APs' performance of each task. This evaluation helps identify any areas for improvement, additional training needs, and overall competency of the APs.
Delegating tasks to assistive personnel is an essential aspect of nursing practice. Following this sequence of steps helps ensure that tasks are delegated appropriately and that the care provided is safe, efficient, and aligned with the APs' capabilities. Regular communication and feedback are essential to effective task delegation and teamwork within the healthcare setting.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
An orthotic is a device that supports or corrects the function of a body part. In this case, an orthotic can help prevent foot drop, which is a common contracture deformity in immobile patients. Foot drop occurs when the muscles that lift the foot become weak or paralyzed, causing the foot to hang down at the ankle. An orthotic can keep the foot in a neutral position and prevent shortening of the calf muscles and Achilles tendon.
Choice A is wrong because a trochanter wedge is used to prevent external rotation of the hip, not contracture. A trochanter wedge is a triangular-shaped pillow that is placed between the legs to keep them parallel and aligned.
Choice C is wrong because a towel roll under the neck is used to maintain proper cervical alignment, not contracture. A towel roll can prevent hyperextension of the neck and support the natural curve of the spine.
Choice D is wrong because a pillow under the knees can actually cause contracture of the knee joint by keeping it in a flexed position. A pillow under the knees can also reduce blood flow to the lower extremities and increase the risk of deep vein thrombosis.
Contracture is a permanent tightening of the muscles, tendons, skin, and surrounding tissues that causes the joints to shorten and stiffen.
Contracture can limit the range of motion and function of the affected body part. Contracture can be caused by inactivity, scarring, or diseases that affect the muscles or nerves. Prevention of contractures requires early diagnosis and initiation of physical medicine approaches such as passive range of motion exercises and splinting before contractures are present or while contractures are mild.
An orthotic is a device that supports or corrects the function of a body part. In this case, an orthotic can help prevent foot drop, which is a common contracture deformity in immobile patients. Foot drop occurs when the muscles that lift the foot become weak or paralyzed, causing the foot to hang down at the ankle. An orthotic can keep the foot in a neutral position and prevent shortening of the calf muscles and Achilles tendon.
Choice A is wrong because a trochanter wedge is used to prevent external rotation of the hip, not contracture. A trochanter wedge is a triangular-shaped pillow that is placed between the legs to keep them parallel and aligned.
Choice C is wrong because a towel roll under the neck is used to maintain proper cervical alignment, not contracture. A towel roll can prevent hyperextension of the neck and support the natural curve of the spine.
Choice D is wrong because a pillow under the knees can actually cause contracture of the knee joint by keeping it in a flexed position. A pillow under the knees can also reduce blood flow to the lower extremities and increase the risk of deep vein thrombosis.
Contracture is a permanent tightening of the muscles, tendons, skin, and surrounding tissues that causes the joints to shorten and stiffen.
Contracture can limit the range of motion and function of the affected body part. Contracture can be caused by inactivity, scarring, or diseases that affect the muscles or nerves. Prevention of contractures requires early diagnosis and initiation of physical medicine approaches such as passive range of motion exercises and splinting before contractures are present or while contractures are mild.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because rubella is a highly contagious viral infection that can cause serious harm to the developing fetus if the pregnant person gets infected. Rubella can cause congenital rubella syndrome, which can result in hearing and vision loss, heart defects and other serious conditions in newborns.
Choice A is wrong because aspirin should not be given to children or adolescents with viral infections, as it can cause Reye’s syndrome, a rare but potentially fatal condition that affects the liver and brain.
Choice C is wrong because rubella does not require airborne precautions, which are used for diseases that can spread through very small droplets that can remain in the air for long periods of time, such as tuberculosis or measles. Rubella spreads through direct contact with saliva or mucus of an infected person, or through respiratory droplets from coughing or sneezing.
Therefore, standard and droplet precautions are sufficient to prevent transmission. Choice D is wrong because Koplik spots are a characteristic sign of measles, not rubella.
Koplik spots are small white spots that appear on the inside of the cheeks before the measles rash develops. Rubella causes a pink or red rash that usually starts on the face and moves down the body.
Normal ranges for rubella antibody tests are:
- IgM: Negative or less than 0.9 IU/mL
- IgG: Negative or less than 10 IU/mL
A positive IgM result indicates a recent or current infection, while a positive IgG result indicates a past infection or immunity from vaccination.
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