A nurse has completed care procedures for a client who requires airborne precautions. Which of the following items of personal protective equipment (PPE) should the nurse remove first?
Gloves
Mask
Gown
Goggles
The Correct Answer is A
A. Gloves: When removing PPE for a client requiring airborne precautions, gloves should be removed first because they are considered the most contaminated item. Removing gloves first helps prevent contamination of other PPE and the healthcare provider's hands.
B. Mask: After removing gloves, the mask should be removed by grasping the ties or ear loops without touching the front of the mask. Removing the mask prevents the potential spread of infectious agents when the client is no longer in the immediate vicinity.
C. Gown: Following the removal of the mask, the gown should be removed, taking care to avoid touching the front of the gown. Removing the gown minimizes the risk of contamination to the healthcare provider's clothing or skin.
D. Goggles: If goggles were worn as part of the PPE for airborne precautions, they should be removed last after gloves, mask, and gown. Removing goggles last helps prevent any potential contamination of the eyes during the removal process.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Pulling the client up from under the arms: This action can increase shearing force on the client's skin, especially if done abruptly or without proper assistance. Pulling the client up by the arms can create friction and shear between the skin and underlying tissues, potentially worsening the pressure injury.
B) Improving the client's hydration: While hydration is essential for overall skin health, it is not directly related to reducing shearing force on a pressure injury. Hydration can help maintain skin integrity and promote healing but does not directly address the mechanical forces contributing to pressure injuries.
C) Lubricating the area with skin cream: While skin cream can help moisturize and protect the skin, it may not necessarily reduce shearing force on a pressure injury. While lubrication can reduce friction between surfaces, it may not be sufficient to prevent shearing forces that occur during movement or repositioning.
D) Preventing the client from sliding in bed: This is the most appropriate action to decrease shearing force on a stage II pressure injury. Sliding in bed can exacerbate shearing forces on the skin, leading to further damage or delayed healing of the pressure injury. Using devices such as pillows, positioning aids, or specialized mattresses can help prevent the client from sliding and minimize shearing forces on the affected area, promoting healing and preventing further injury.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Gelatin: Gelatin is a suitable choice for a clear liquid diet. It is transparent and easily digestible, making it appropriate for individuals requiring clear liquids, such as those recovering from certain medical procedures or surgeries.
B) Popsicle: Popsicles are commonly included in clear liquid diets. They provide hydration and can help soothe a sore throat or provide relief from nausea. However, it is essential to ensure that the popsicle is clear and does not contain any solid fruit or pieces.
C) Yogurt: Yogurt is not typically included in a clear liquid diet. Clear liquid diets consist of transparent or translucent fluids that are easily digested and leave minimal residue in the gastrointestinal tract. Yogurt, being a semi-solid food, contains particles that are not clear and is typically considered a full liquid or soft diet item rather than a clear liquid. Therefore, the client's choice of yogurt indicates a need for further teaching regarding appropriate food choices for a clear liquid diet.
D) Broth: Broth, such as chicken or beef broth, is a staple of clear liquid diets. It is easily digested and provides essential electrolytes and hydration. Broth can be consumed hot or cold, depending on the client's preference and medical condition.
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