A nurse educator is providing an educational in-service about various neurological disorders. Which statement should be included when teaching about Guillain-Barre Syndrome?
Guillain-Barre Syndrome is a contagious disease spread by respiratory droplets.
Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes demyelination in the central nervous system.
Guillain-Barre Syndrome is a genetic disorder.
Guillain-Barre Syndrome affects the peripheral nervous system.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Guillain-Barre Syndrome is not a contagious disease. It is an autoimmune disorder that occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves. GBS is not spread through respiratory droplets or any other form of infection transmission.
B. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes demyelination in the peripheral nervous system, not the central nervous system. The central nervous system includes the brain and spinal cord, whereas the peripheral nervous system comprises the nerves outside the brain and spinal cord.
C. Guillain-Barre Syndrome is not a genetic disorder. It is considered an autoimmune condition that can be triggered by an infection or other environmental factors. While there may be genetic predispositions that affect susceptibility to autoimmune conditions, GBS itself is not classified as a genetic disorder.
D. Guillain-Barre Syndrome primarily affects the peripheral nervous system. It involves an immune- mediated attack on the peripheral nerves, leading to symptoms such as muscle weakness, tingling, and loss of reflexes.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Peptic ulcers are sores that develop on the lining of the stomach, small intestine, or esophagus due to the erosion caused by stomach acid. A Mallory-Weiss tear is not related to peptic ulcers. Instead, it results from a different type of injury related to forceful vomiting or retching.
B. Chewable aspirin is not a treatment for Mallory-Weiss tears. In fact, aspirin can exacerbate bleeding and is typically avoided in situations where gastrointestinal bleeding is present. Mallory-Weiss tears are generally managed by supportive measures and sometimes endoscopic interventions, not with aspirin.
C. A Mallory-Weiss tear specifically affects the mucosal lining at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach, not the duodenum. The duodenum is part of the small intestine, and tears or bleeding here are not characteristic of Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
D. A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear or laceration in the mucosal lining at the gastroesophageal junction (where the esophagus meets the stomach). It is typically caused by severe vomiting or retching, which can lead to the tear and subsequent upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Age-related hearing loss, also known as presbycusis, is a common condition among older adults. It typically involves a gradual decline in hearing ability due to changes in the inner ear or auditory nerve as people age. This statement acknowledges a common experience and helps normalize the patient's condition without suggesting immediate medical intervention or attributing it to something specific.
B. While hearing aids can significantly improve the quality of life for individuals with hearing loss, not all cases immediately require them. It’s important to assess the severity of hearing loss and discuss various options with the patient, including potential benefits and drawbacks of hearing aids.
C. Hearing loss that develops gradually over time is usually related to aging, not an infection. While infections can cause temporary hearing loss, age-related hearing loss is a different issue and is typically not due to an infection.
D. While some medications can cause temporary or permanent hearing loss as a side effect (a condition known as ototoxicity), it’s important to consult a healthcare provider before making any changes to medication regimens.
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