A client is diagnosed with chronic stable angina caused by plaques in the coronary arteries. The client receives a prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin to use as needed when angina occurs. Which additional medication does the nurse anticipate would be prescribed for this client?
Atorvastatin
Digoxin
Furosemide
Rituximab
The Correct Answer is A
A. Atorvastatin is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels in the blood. Reducing cholesterol levels helps to prevent the progression of atherosclerosis (plaque buildup in the arteries), which is a major cause of chronic stable angina. Statins are commonly prescribed to manage the underlying condition that leads to angina by stabilizing plaques and reducing the risk of heart attacks and strokes.
B. Digoxin is a medication used to treat heart failure and certain types of abnormal heart rhythms (arrhythmias). It works by increasing the force of heart contractions and controlling heart rate. While it can be helpful in specific cases of heart failure or arrhythmias, it is not typically used for the management of chronic stable angina.
C. Furosemide is a diuretic used to treat conditions such as heart failure and edema by removing excess fluid from the body. It helps to reduce fluid buildup but does not address the underlying cause of chronic stable angina or improve coronary artery function. It is not a primary medication for managing angina.
D. Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody used primarily to treat certain types of cancer and autoimmune diseases by targeting specific immune cells. It is not used to treat chronic stable angina or related cardiovascular conditions. It does not play a role in managing cholesterol levels or improving coronary artery health.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Peptic ulcers are sores that develop on the lining of the stomach, small intestine, or esophagus due to the erosion caused by stomach acid. A Mallory-Weiss tear is not related to peptic ulcers. Instead, it results from a different type of injury related to forceful vomiting or retching.
B. Chewable aspirin is not a treatment for Mallory-Weiss tears. In fact, aspirin can exacerbate bleeding and is typically avoided in situations where gastrointestinal bleeding is present. Mallory-Weiss tears are generally managed by supportive measures and sometimes endoscopic interventions, not with aspirin.
C. A Mallory-Weiss tear specifically affects the mucosal lining at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach, not the duodenum. The duodenum is part of the small intestine, and tears or bleeding here are not characteristic of Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
D. A Mallory-Weiss tear is a tear or laceration in the mucosal lining at the gastroesophageal junction (where the esophagus meets the stomach). It is typically caused by severe vomiting or retching, which can lead to the tear and subsequent upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The late-phase response in asthma is characterized by a delayed and prolonged inflammatory reaction that can occur 4 to 6 hours after exposure to a trigger. It involves the recruitment of additional inflammatory cells, such as eosinophils and T cells, which contribute to ongoing airway inflammation, increased mucus production, and bronchoconstriction. This phase often leads to a return of symptoms or worsening of symptoms after the initial relief provided by a rescue inhaler.
B. The late-phase response does not typically respond as well to rescue inhalers (such as albuterol) as the early-phase response does. Rescue inhalers are primarily effective for the immediate, bronchospastic component of asthma (early-phase response).
C. The late-phase response occurs as part of the natural progression of asthma inflammation and is not necessarily related to improper use of a rescue inhaler. Even with proper use of a rescue inhaler, the late-phase response can still occur due to the underlying inflammatory processes.
D. The late-phase response can occur even if the trigger is no longer present. It is related to the ongoing inflammatory process rather than continued exposure to the trigger. Although continued exposure to triggers can exacerbate symptoms, the late-phase response can still occur independently of further exposure.
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