A nurse delegates tasks to a licensed practical nurse (LPN) and an assistive personnel (AP).
When admitting a client who is experiencing acute liver failure and who has ascites and an NG tube, which of the following tasks is most appropriate for the nurse to delegate to the LPN?
Insert an indwelling catheter if the client has not voided in 3 hr.
Obtain the abdominal girth now and every 4 hr.
Assess and document the level of consciousness every hour.
Measure the amount of gastric drainage every 2 hr.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Inserting an indwelling catheter is within the scope of practice for an LPN and requires technical skill and training that an LPN possesses. This task is appropriate for delegation because it does not require the RN's direct clinical judgment or assessment at the time of insertion. The LPN can perform this procedure based on a specific directive from the RN.
B. Obtaining the abdominal girth is a task that involves assessment and this cannot be delegated by the RN to an LPN.
C. Assessing and documenting the level of consciousness involves critical thinking and
interpretation of assessment findings, making it more appropriate for the registered nurse to perform.
D. Measuring gastric drainage is a task that the LPN can perform, but it is less critical compared to the insertion of an indwelling catheter in this scenario. The RN should prioritize delegating tasks to the LPN that require their specific skills, such as catheter insertion, while reserving simpler tasks for the AP.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Explanation
The nurse should first administer the client's cefazolinto the client's IV access
Rationale:
Cefazolin is an antibiotic prescribed to treat the client's suspected infection indicated by the fever and hip surgical wound inflammation. Administering the antibiotic promptly is essential to initiate treatment and address the underlying cause of the fever. The prescription specifies administering cefazolin intravenously, so the nurse should prioritize administering it through the client's IV access. Administering acetaminophen or alprazolam may be appropriate based on the client's symptoms and vital signs, but addressing the infection with antibiotics takes precedence.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
- Rationale for A: Following simple instructions indicates that the client is cooperative and may no longer pose a threat to themselves or others, which is a primary consideration for the removal of restraints. It shows the client's ability to understand and comply with directions, suggesting they are in a calmer state of mind. This behavioral change is a positive sign of regained control, making it safe to consider restraint removal.
- Rationale for B: While an apology may show remorse, it does not necessarily indicate that the client has calmed down or that they can safely interact without the restraints. Apologies can be driven by various motivations and do not reliably demonstrate a change in the risk of aggression.
- Rationale for C: A request to have restraints removed is not sufficient evidence of reduced risk. The client's desire to be unrestrained does not equate to a behavioral change that would justify removal, as it does not assess the client's current mental state or potential for aggression.
- Rationale for D: Maintaining eye contact is a positive social behavior but does not directly correlate with the client's potential for aggression or their ability to be safely managed without restraints. It is not a definitive indicator of the client's readiness to have restraints removed.
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